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Which of the following findings contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose?
- A. Drowsiness, lethargy, and inactivity
- B. Dry mouth, nasal congestion, and blurred vision
- C. Rash, blood dyscrasias, severe depression
- D. Hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rash, blood dyscrasias, and severe depression are serious side effects of haloperidol that necessitate withholding the dose and prompt further evaluation. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction, blood dyscrasias are serious blood disorders that can be life-threatening, and severe depression may worsen with haloperidol use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drowsiness, lethargy, inactivity, dry mouth, nasal congestion, blurred vision, hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema are common side effects of haloperidol that may not necessarily contraindicate its use but should be monitored and managed appropriately.
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A nurse is preparing change of shift report after the night shift using one SBAR communication tool. Which of the following data should the nurse include when reporting background information?
- A. "Blood pressure 160/92 mm Hg"
- B. "Start the first dose of penicillin at 1200"
- C. "Pain rating of 5 on a scale from 0 to 10"
- D. "Code status: do-not-resuscitate"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When providing background information in a shift report using the SBAR communication tool, the nurse should include details related to medication administration and orders. This helps ensure continuity of care and accurate handover of responsibilities. Choices A, C, and D do not typically fall under background information for shift reports. A blood pressure reading, pain rating, and code status are more relevant to the patient's current condition and status, rather than background information about medications or orders.
During an assessment, a client receiving tube feedings via NG tube shows signs of nasal mucosa irritation. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 5.5 mEq/L
- B. Irritation of nasal mucosa
- C. Sodium 144 mEq/L
- D. Loose stools
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Irritation of nasal mucosa is a crucial finding that the nurse should report to the provider as it suggests potential complications with NG tube placement, such as improper positioning or mucosal damage. High potassium levels (Choice A) can be concerning but are not directly related to NG tube placement issues. Normal sodium levels (Choice C) and loose stools (Choice D) are common occurrences in clients receiving tube feedings and are not typically indicative of immediate complications that require urgent reporting.
A nurse is evaluating a client's use of a cane. What is the correct use?
- A. Client holds the cane on the stronger side of the body.
- B. Client holds the cane on the weaker side of the body.
- C. Client holds the cane in front of the weaker side of the body.
- D. Client holds the cane in front of the stronger side of the body.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct way to use a cane is for the client to hold it on the stronger side of the body. This positioning allows the cane to provide support to the weaker side, assisting with balance and stability. Placing the cane on the weaker side (Choice B) may not provide adequate support and could lead to an increased risk of falls. Holding the cane in front of the weaker side (Choice C) or in front of the stronger side (Choice D) does not optimize the support and stability needed while walking with a cane.
A client with Parkinson's disease is being discharged. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
- B. I will increase my fiber intake to prevent constipation.
- C. I will perform range of motion exercises to maintain mobility.
- D. I will stop taking my medication if I feel better.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Patients with Parkinson's disease should not stop taking their medication if they feel better, as doing so can worsen symptoms. It is crucial for patients to continue their prescribed medication regimen as directed by their healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate actions that promote the well-being of a client with Parkinson's disease. Choice A emphasizes medication adherence, which is vital for symptom management. Choice B addresses a common issue in Parkinson's patients and shows an understanding of the importance of dietary management. Choice C highlights the significance of physical activity in maintaining mobility, which is essential for overall quality of life in Parkinson's disease.
A client with a prescription for a clear liquid diet is receiving teaching about food choices from a nurse. Which of the following selections by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Gelatin
- B. Whole milk
- C. Cream soups
- D. Orange juice
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gelatin. Gelatin is suitable for a clear liquid diet because it is transparent and free of solid particles. Clear liquid diets are designed to be easily digested and leave minimal residue in the gastrointestinal tract. Choices B, C, and D are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet. Whole milk, cream soups, and orange juice contain solid particles or pulp, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Whole milk and cream soups are not clear liquids as they contain milk solids and vegetable particles respectively. Orange juice contains pulp, which is not part of a clear liquid diet. It is important for clients to follow dietary restrictions to achieve the intended therapeutic outcomes.