Nokea
A nurse is assessing a client who has a possible right pneumothorax.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Reduce right sided breath sounds
- B. Inter coastal retractions
- C. High pitched strider
- D. Paradoxical chest movement
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduced right-sided breath sounds. This finding suggests a potential pneumothorax on the right side, where air leaks into the pleural space causing lung collapse and decreased breath sounds. Intercostal retractions (B) indicate increased work of breathing, likely due to respiratory distress but not specific to a pneumothorax. High-pitched stridor (C) is a sign of upper airway obstruction, not typically seen with pneumothorax. Paradoxical chest movement (D) is seen in flail chest, not characteristic of pneumothorax.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is near the end of life and is on complete bed rest. The client states that he needs to have a bowel movement and the nurse offers a bed pan. The client states 'I've always used the bathroom'
Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Tell me what concerns you about the bedpan
- B. Make sure to use nearby furniture to support yourself when walking to the bathroom.
- C. I will have the physical therapist ambulate you to the bathroom.
- D. You have to use the bedpan for your own safety.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Tell me what concerns you about the bedpan." This response demonstrates active listening and empathy, allowing the nurse to understand the patient's specific worries or fears. It promotes patient-centered care by addressing the individual's needs. Other options lack this patient-centered approach: B assumes the patient can walk, C delegates without assessing the patient's concerns, and D is directive and dismissive of the patient's feelings.
A nurse is assessing a 5-year-old child who has diabetes insipidus and is receiving desmopressin.
Which finding should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
- A. Heart rate 140/min
- B. Capillary refill 3 seconds
- C. Cessation of nocturnal enuresis
- D. Absence of hypoglycemic episodes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cessation of nocturnal enuresis. This indicates the medication is effective because it shows improvement in the condition being treated, which in this case is nocturnal enuresis. Nocturnal enuresis is the involuntary passage of urine during sleep and it can be a result of various factors such as hormonal imbalance or bladder control issues. Therefore, if the medication is effective, it should lead to the cessation of this symptom.
Heart rate (A) and capillary refill (B) are not necessarily indicators of the effectiveness of the medication in treating nocturnal enuresis. Absence of hypoglycemic episodes (D) is more related to diabetes management rather than nocturnal enuresis.
A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets a respiratory rate of 10/min.
After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next.
- A. Administer flumazenil to the client.
- B. Initiate gastric lavage with activated charcoal.
- C. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position.
- D. Obtain a stat CT scan of the brain.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer flumazenil to the client. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, which includes respiratory depression. Administering flumazenil would help reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines and improve the client's respiratory status. Initiating gastric lavage with activated charcoal (B) is not the immediate priority after securing the airway and IV. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position (C) is not recommended due to potential complications. Obtaining a stat CT scan of the brain (D) is not necessary at this point and does not address the immediate concerns of airway and sedation reversal.
A nurse is caring for a client
Nurses: Notes
0800:
A client who has bipolar disorder is admitted to the inpatient psychiatric unit. During the
morning assessment, the client reports blurred vision and an increase in urine output. it's noted
that the client is having clonic jerking of upper extremities: Provider notified and laboratory tests
ordered. Skin is warm and dry without rash.
Complete the following sentence by using the list of options.
The nurse understands that the patient has likely developed lithium toxicity and will be monitored for-------
- A. blood glucose levels
- B. seizure activity
- C. symptoms of infection
- D. temperature over 39.4° C(103\ F)"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: seizure activity. Lithium toxicity can lead to neurological symptoms including seizures. Monitoring for seizure activity is crucial to prevent serious complications. Blood glucose levels (A) are not typically affected by lithium toxicity. Symptoms of infection (C) are unrelated to lithium toxicity. Monitoring temperature (D) is important but not specific to lithium toxicity.
The nurse is continuing to care for the client.
Provider Prescriptions Day 1,
1030
Admit to obstetrical unit.
Serum magnesium level per facility policy 24 hr urine
for total protein and creatinine Insert indwelling
urinary catheter Continuous external fetal monitoring
Administer loading dose of magnesium sulfate 4 g via Intermittent IV bolus over 20 min
followed by a maintenance dose of 2 g/hr
Lactated Ringer's 50 ml/tr via continuous iV infusion Betamethasone
12 mg IM X2 doses given 24 hr apart
Labetalol 20 mg IV bolus now, then 100 mg PO twice dally starting at 2000 Vital signs every 30
min
Acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hr PRN pain Hourly intake and
output
The provider has admitted the client to the inpatient obstetrics unit and written prescriptions based on the client's condition. The action the nurse should take first is------followed by ----------
- A. evaluating the fetal heart rate tracing
- B. monitoring urine output
- C. Checking the client's blood pressure
- D. administering labetalol
- E. Starting the continuous IV infusion
- F. inserting an indwelling urinary catheter
Correct Answer: C,D
Rationale: The correct first action is to check the client's blood pressure (Choice C) as it is essential to assess the client's immediate physiological status. High blood pressure in obstetric patients can lead to severe complications. Administering labetalol (Choice D) is the next step if the blood pressure is elevated, as it is a commonly used medication to manage hypertension in pregnancy. Choices A, B, E, and F are important interventions but should be prioritized after addressing the client's blood pressure as they are not directly related to the immediate risk of hypertensive crisis.