Nokea
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Xerostomia
- B. Client reports a pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10
- C. Excoriation of the skin on the neck and chest
- D. Dysphagia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dysphagia. Dysphagia poses the highest risk of aspiration, malnutrition, and dehydration. Priority is given to life-threatening or potentially life-threatening issues. Xerostomia (A) is uncomfortable but not immediately life-threatening. Pain level (B) can be managed with medication. Excoriation of the skin (C) can be treated topically.
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Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Obtain the specimen immediately upon the client waking up.
- B. Wait 1 day to collect the specimen if the client cannot provide sputum.
- C. Ask the client to provide 15 to 20 ml of sputum in the container.
- D. Wear sterile gloves to collect specimen from the client.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because obtaining the specimen immediately upon the client waking up is crucial for accurate results in sputum collection. In the morning, the sputum is usually more concentrated and provides a better sample. Waiting or collecting at other times may lead to diluted or contaminated samples, affecting test results. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests delaying collection, which could compromise the accuracy of the test. Choice C is incorrect because the amount specified is too high for sputum collection, risking contamination. Choice D is incorrect as sterile gloves are not always necessary for sputum collection, regular gloves are usually sufficient.
Which task should the nurse perform to practice distributive justice?
- A. Ensuring that a client who is homeless receives preventative medical care
- B. Allocating community resources fairly among all clients in need.
- C. Prioritizing care for clients based on medical necessity rather than financial status.
- D. Advocating for equal access to healthcare services for underserved populations.
- E. Developing programs that address social determinants of health to reduce disparities.
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is E because developing programs that address social determinants of health to reduce disparities aligns with the principle of distributive justice, which focuses on fair distribution of resources to reduce inequalities. By addressing social determinants of health, such as income inequality or access to education, the nurse is working towards creating equal opportunities for all individuals to achieve good health outcomes.
Choices A, B, C, and D do not directly address the root causes of health disparities and inequality. Option A focuses on providing care to a specific individual rather than addressing systemic issues. Option B talks about allocating resources fairly but lacks the focus on addressing social determinants. Option C mentions prioritizing care based on medical necessity, which may not necessarily target disparities. Option D discusses advocating for equal access, but it does not specifically address the underlying social determinants that contribute to inequalities.
Which of the following conditions in the child's medical history should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the procedure?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Primary glaucoma
- C. History of appendectomy
- D. Iron deficiency anemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Hypertension is a contraindication to certain procedures due to the risk of complications such as increased bleeding or cardiovascular events. Primary glaucoma, history of appendectomy, and iron deficiency anemia are not contraindications for the procedure mentioned. Glaucoma and appendectomy are unrelated to the procedure, while iron deficiency anemia may not directly impact the safety of the procedure.
Which of the following actions should the nurse include when teaching about interacting with a client who is aggravated, pacing, and speaking loudly?
- A. Initiate seclusion protocol.
- B. Tell the client, 'You seem to be very upset.'
- C. Stand directly in front of the client and maintain eye contact.
- D. Speak in a firm and authoritative tone to gain control of the situation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B - Tell the client, 'You seem to be very upset.' This response shows empathy and acknowledgment of the client's emotions, which can help de-escalate the situation. It validates the client's feelings and opens the door for effective communication. Initiating seclusion protocol (A) may escalate the situation and should only be used as a last resort for safety. Standing directly in front of the client and maintaining eye contact (C) can be perceived as confrontational and may increase agitation. Speaking in a firm and authoritative tone (D) may further escalate the client's emotions. It is important to approach the situation with empathy and understanding to establish a therapeutic relationship.
Which finding should the nurse identify as a potential indication of increased intracranial pressure?
- A. Increasingly severe headache
- B. Bradycardia and hypertension
- C. Dilated, non-reactive pupils
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Increasingly severe headache is a common symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to brain tissue compression. Bradycardia and hypertension can occur as a result of increased intracranial pressure affecting the autonomic nervous system. Dilated, non-reactive pupils may indicate brainstem compression. Therefore, all of these findings are potential indications of increased intracranial pressure. Choices A, B, and C all individually point towards different manifestations of increased intracranial pressure, making them incorrect if considered in isolation.