Which of the following foods is a complete protein?
- A. corn
- B. eggs
- C. peanuts
- D. sunflower seeds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Eggs are considered a complete protein because they contain all nine essential amino acids required by the human body. In contrast, corn, peanuts, and sunflower seeds are incomplete proteins as they lack one or more essential amino acids. Corn, although a staple food for many cultures, is deficient in the amino acids lysine and tryptophan. Peanuts are low in the amino acid methionine, and sunflower seeds are low in lysine. Therefore, eggs are the correct answer as a complete protein source.
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The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles.
- B. When refrigerating formula, discard partially used bottles after 24 hours.
- C. When using formula concentrate, mix one part water and one part concentrate.
- D. When using powdered formula, mix two parts water and one part powder.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles. It is essential for parents to be cautious when warming bottles in a microwave oven to prevent superheating of the milk. Choosing the defrost setting and checking the formula temperature before giving it to the baby helps avoid burns. Discarding partially used bottles after 24 hours when refrigerating formula is crucial as it reduces the risk of harmful bacterial growth. Mixing formula concentrate with water in a 1:1 ratio of one part concentrate to one part water ensures proper dilution of the formula. On the other hand, powdered formula should be mixed following the package instructions, typically using two parts water to one part powder. This accurate mixing ratio provides the necessary balance of nutrients for the baby. Adding fresh formula to partially used bottles can introduce pathogens that may harm the infant, underscoring the importance of discarding partially used bottles and preparing formula correctly. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the safe and proper ways to feed a newborn effectively.
How often should the nurse change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions?
- A. every 24 hours
- B. every 36 hours
- C. every 48 hours
- D. every 72 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'every 24 hours.' Changing the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours is crucial due to the high risk of bacterial growth. Bacterial contamination can lead to serious infections in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals between tubing changes increases the risk of bacterial contamination and infection, compromising patient safety. It is essential to maintain a strict 24-hour schedule to minimize the risk of complications associated with bacterial contamination.
Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?
- A. rickets
- B. marasmus
- C. kwashiorkor
- D. scurvy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Scurvy is indeed associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C. Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by weakness, anemia, gum disease, and skin hemorrhages. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because rickets is caused by vitamin D deficiency, marasmus is due to severe malnutrition leading to wasting, and kwashiorkor is a form of severe protein-energy malnutrition.
An assessment of the skull of a normal 10-month-old baby should identify which of the following?
- A. closure of the posterior fontanel.
- B. closure of the anterior fontanel.
- C. overlap of cranial bones.
- D. ossification of the sutures
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the closure of the posterior fontanel. By 10 months of age, the posterior fontanel should be closed. The anterior fontanel typically closes around 12-18 months of age. Overlapping of cranial bones is not a normal finding and may indicate craniosynostosis, a condition where the sutures close too early. Ossification of the sutures is also not a normal finding in a 10-month-old baby as the sutures should remain open to allow for the growth of the skull.
A male client is learning about testicular self-examination (TSE) from a nurse. Which statement should the nurse make to the client?
- A. A good time to examine the testicles is during or after you take a shower.'
- B. If you notice an enlarged testicle or a lump, you need to notify the physician.'
- C. The testicle is round and smooth. It feels firm and without lumps.'
- D. Perform a testicular exam monthly to detect early signs of testicular cancer.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make to the client is 'If you notice an enlarged testicle or a lump, you need to notify the physician.' During a shower or bath is the best time to examine the testes because warm temperatures make the testes hang lower in the scrotum. The testes should feel round and smooth, without lumps. Self-examination should be performed monthly to detect any abnormalities early. The physician needs to be notified immediately if any abnormal findings are noticed. Choice A is incorrect because the best time for TSE is during or after a warm shower or bath, not just before. Choice C is incorrect as the testicle should feel round, smooth, and without lumps, not egg-shaped and lumpy. Choice D is incorrect as monthly self-examinations are recommended, not every 2 months.
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