Which of the following foods should be avoided by clients who are prone to developing heartburn as a result of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
- A. lettuce
- B. eggs
- C. chocolate
- D. butterscotch
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is chocolate. Ingestion of chocolate can reduce lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure, leading to reflux and clinical symptoms of GERD. Lettuce, eggs, and butterscotch do not affect LES pressure and are less likely to trigger heartburn in individuals with GERD. Therefore, clients who are prone to developing heartburn due to GERD should avoid consuming chocolate to manage their symptoms effectively.
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What is the intent of the Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA) of 1990?
- A. Enhance personal control over healthcare decisions.
- B. Encourage medical treatment decision making prior to need.
- C. Establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney.
- D. Emphasize client education.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The purpose of the PSDA is to encourage medical treatment decision-making before it becomes necessary. This legislation aims to empower individuals to make their own healthcare choices in advance. Choice A is incorrect because while enhancing personal control over healthcare decisions is important, the primary goal of the PSDA is to facilitate medical decision-making before the need arises. Choice C is incorrect as the PSDA does not establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney; instead, it encourages individuals to create their own advance directives according to state-specific regulations. Choice D is incorrect because while client education is valuable, the main focus of the PSDA is on empowering individuals to plan for their future healthcare needs.
Mr. H. is upset about being in the hospital for another day due to the high cost. The rights he is likely to demand include all of the following except:
- A. the right to examine and question the bill
- B. the right to reasonable response to requests
- C. the right to refuse treatment
- D. the right to confidentiality
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Confidentiality is the maintenance of privacy of information. The question does not suggest that confidentiality has been breached. In this scenario, Mr. H. is concerned about the cost and the length of his stay, which relates to his rights regarding billing, treatment, and response to requests. The right to confidentiality, though important, is not directly related to his current situation of being upset about the high cost and extended stay. Mr. H. is more likely to demand the right to examine and question the bill to understand the charges, the right to reasonable response to requests regarding his care and stay, and the right to refuse treatment if he wishes. Therefore, the correct answer is the right to confidentiality, as it is not a primary concern in this context.
If Ms. Barrett's distance vision is 20/30, which of the following statements is true?
- A. The client can read from 20' what a person with normal vision can read at 30'.
- B. The client can read from 30' what a person with normal vision can read at 20'.
- C. The client can read the entire chart from 30'.
- D. The client can read the chart from 20' with the left eye and from 30' with the right eye.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When Ms. Barrett's distance vision is measured as 20/30, it means that she can read from 20 feet away what a person with normal vision can read at 30 feet. The numerator (20) represents the distance in feet between the chart and the client, while the denominator (30) indicates the distance at which a normal eye can read the chart. In this case, Ms. Barrett's vision is slightly worse than normal, as she needs to be closer to the chart to read it clearly. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Choice B reverses the distances, Choice C assumes the client can read the entire chart from 30 feet, and Choice D introduces information not related to the 20/30 measurement.
The greatest time savers when planning client care include all of the following except:
- A. reacting to the crisis of the moment
- B. setting goals
- C. planning
- D. specifying priorities
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The greatest time-savers when planning client care are activities that facilitate focus and completion of priority items. Time-savers include setting goals, specifying priorities, planning tasks, delegating where appropriate, reassessment, and ongoing evaluation of needs. Reacting to the crisis of the moment is not a time-saving strategy in client care planning; it can lead to inefficiency, lack of focus, and potentially missing important priority items. Therefore, the correct answer is 'reacting to the crisis of the moment.' Choices B, C, and D are essential components for effective client care planning as they help in organizing and prioritizing tasks, setting objectives, and ensuring a structured approach to care delivery.
When should rehabilitation services begin?
- A. when the client enters the health care system.
- B. after the client requests rehabilitation services.
- C. after the client's physical condition stabilizes.
- D. when the client is discharged from the hospital.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rehabilitation services should begin when the client enters the health care system to ensure early intervention and optimal outcomes. Initiating rehabilitation early can prevent complications, maximize recovery potential, and improve overall health outcomes. Choice B is incorrect because delaying rehabilitation until the client requests it may result in missed opportunities for timely intervention. Choice C is incorrect as waiting for the client's physical condition to stabilize can lead to unnecessary delays in starting the rehabilitation process, potentially slowing down recovery progress. Choice D is incorrect because starting rehabilitation only after discharge can hinder the recovery process by missing out on crucial early stages of intervention and support.
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