Which of the following guidekines does not observe surgical asepisi in the operating room?
- A. sterile articles may touch other sterile articles or surface and remain sterile
- B. gowns of surgical team are considered sterile in front from the chest down to the bottom of the gown
- C. whenever a sterile barrier is breached, the area must be considered contaminated
- D. sterile drapes are used to create a sterile field
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in surgical asepsis, sterile articles should not touch other sterile articles or surfaces to maintain sterility. Choice B is correct as surgical team gowns are sterile in front. Choice C is correct as any breach makes the area contaminated. Choice D is correct as sterile drapes create a sterile field.
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Just as the nurse was entering the room, the patient who was sitting on his chair begins to have a seizure. Which of the following must the nurse do first?
- A. Ease the patient to the floor
- B. Insert a padded tongue depressor between his jaws
- C. Lift the patient and put him on the bed
- D. Restraint patient’s body movement
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ease the patient to the floor. This is the first step because it helps prevent injury during a seizure. Lowering the patient to the floor prevents falls and protects the patient's head. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B can cause injury or obstruct the airway, choice C involves unnecessary movement, and choice D can lead to further harm or injury. It is crucial to prioritize safety and prevent harm during a seizure episode.
Antihistamines are used cautiously in older men with prostatic hypertrophy for which of the ff reasons?
- A. Because the clients may experience increased drowsiness
- B. Because these clients may experience difficulty voiding
- C. Because these clients face a greater risk of cardiac arrest
- D. Because these clients have a lower autoimmune response CARING FOR CLIENTS WITH AIDS
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Because these clients may experience difficulty voiding. Antihistamines can worsen urinary symptoms in men with prostatic hypertrophy by causing urinary retention. This is due to the anticholinergic effects of antihistamines, which can lead to decreased bladder contraction and difficulty in voiding. Increased drowsiness (choice A) is a common side effect of antihistamines but is not specific to older men with prostatic hypertrophy. Choice C, greater risk of cardiac arrest, is not directly related to the use of antihistamines in older men with prostatic hypertrophy. Choice D, lower autoimmune response in clients with AIDS, is unrelated to the use of antihistamines in older men with prostatic hypertrophy.
A client with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), an autoimmune disorder, is admitted to an acute care facility. Concerned about hemorrhage, the nurse monitors the client’s platelet count and observes closely for signs and symptoms of bleeding. The client is at greatest risk for cerebral hemorrhage when the platelet count falls below:
- A. 135,000/ul
- B. 20,000/ul
- C. 75,000/ul
- D. 500/ul
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 20,000/ul. A platelet count below 20,000/ul puts the client at the highest risk for cerebral hemorrhage due to severe thrombocytopenia. Platelets are essential for blood clotting, and a low count increases the risk of spontaneous bleeding, especially in critical organs like the brain. Choices A, C, and D have platelet counts that are higher than the critical level of 20,000/ul, so they do not pose as high a risk for cerebral hemorrhage. Option D, 500/ul, is extremely low and would likely lead to severe bleeding, but the critical threshold for cerebral hemorrhage is considered to be around 20,000/ul.
The nurse is instructing a premenopausal woman about breast self-examination. The nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination:
- A. at the end of her menstrual cycle
- B. on the 1st day of the menstrual cycle
- C. on the same day each month
- D. immediately after her menstrual period
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - The nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination on the same day each month to establish a routine, making it easier to remember and detect any changes. This consistency helps in early detection of abnormalities.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Doing it at the end of the menstrual cycle may not be consistent due to varying cycle lengths.
B: Doing it on the 1st day of the menstrual cycle may not be practical and could lead to missing potential abnormalities.
D: Doing it immediately after her menstrual period may not provide a consistent schedule for self-examination.
Which of the ff. statements would the nurse understand is true when assessing normal auditory acuity using the Rinne test?
- A. The patient perceives sound equally in both ears.
- B. Air conduction is heard longer than bone conduction in both ears.
- C. Bone conduction is heard longer than air conduction in both ears.
- D. The patient’s left ear will perceive the sound better than the right ear.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because in a normal Rinne test, air conduction is heard longer than bone conduction in both ears. This is due to the fact that air conduction involves the transmission of sound waves through the external auditory canal, middle ear, and inner ear, which is more efficient than bone conduction where the sound waves are transmitted directly to the inner ear through the bones of the skull. Therefore, when the tuning fork is placed on the mastoid bone (bone conduction) and then moved next to the ear (air conduction), the sound should be heard longer through air conduction.
Choice A is incorrect because normal auditory acuity does not necessarily mean equal perception in both ears. Choice C is incorrect as bone conduction should be heard shorter than air conduction in a normal Rinne test. Choice D is incorrect as the test does not determine which ear perceives sound better, but rather the difference in duration between air and bone conduction.