Nokea
Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk for suicide?
- A. 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure
- B. 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy
- C. 28-year-old post-partum crying weekly
- D. 50-year-old client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and depression
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure. Elderly individuals with chronic diseases, especially men, are at very high risk for suicide. The other choices, although they may be vulnerable populations, do not carry as high a risk for suicide. The 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy may actually have a lower risk as they are receiving treatment. The 28-year-old post-partum individual is experiencing a common emotional response after childbirth, which is not necessarily indicative of a high suicide risk. The 50-year-old with OCD and depression is at risk but not as high as elderly individuals with chronic illness.
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A client delivered a term male infant four hours ago. The infant was stillborn. Which room assignment would be most appropriate for this client?
- A. Request a private room on the GYN floor
- B. Assign her to a private room on the postpartum unit
- C. Discharge her home as soon as her condition is stable
- D. Room her with another client who experienced a pregnancy loss
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate room assignment for the client who delivered a stillborn infant would be to request a private room on the GYN floor. This client needs privacy to grieve, and having a private space allows for family members to offer support. Placing her in a GYN unit ensures that she is away from the maternity unit's sights and sounds, which could be painful reminders for her. Assigning her to a postpartum unit may cause distress due to the presence of other mothers and newborns. Discharging her home too early may not allow her sufficient time for emotional and physical recovery. Rooming her with another client who experienced a pregnancy loss may not provide the necessary privacy and space she needs for her emotional well-being.
The client develops a tension pneumothorax. Assessment is expected to reveal?
- A. Sudden hypertension and bradycardia
- B. Productive cough with yellow mucus
- C. Tracheal deviation and dyspnea
- D. Sudden development of profuse hemoptysis and weakness
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a tension pneumothorax, the trachea deviates to the unaffected side due to increased pressure in the affected pleural space, causing respiratory distress. Dyspnea is a hallmark symptom as the lung on the affected side collapses, leading to difficulty in breathing. Sudden hypertension and bradycardia (Choice A) are not typical findings of tension pneumothorax. Productive cough with yellow mucus (Choice B) is more suggestive of respiratory infections rather than a tension pneumothorax. Sudden development of profuse hemoptysis and weakness (Choice D) is not characteristic of tension pneumothorax presentation.
The schizophrenic client who is admitted to the hospital for possible bowel obstruction has an NG tube and complains of pain. What should the nurse do at this time?
- A. Decrease the stimuli and observe frequently
- B. Administer the PRN sedative
- C. Call the physician immediately
- D. Administer the PRN pain medication
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer the PRN (as needed) pain medication to address the schizophrenic client's complaint of pain. It is essential to provide relief and comfort to the client experiencing pain. Option A, decreasing stimuli and observing frequently, may not address the underlying cause of pain and delay relief. Option B, administering a sedative, does not target the pain but may mask symptoms. Option C, calling the physician immediately, while important in some situations, is not the most immediate action needed to alleviate the client's pain. Therefore, the most appropriate action at this time is to administer the PRN pain medication to help alleviate the client's discomfort.
While Fluorouracil (5FU®) is being infused, a client complains of burning at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Aspirate the IV site for blood return.
- B. Slow the infusion.
- C. Inspect the IV site.
- D. Stop the infusion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse is to inspect the IV site. This is important to assess for any signs of infiltration or extravasation, which could be causing the burning sensation. Aspirating the IV site for blood return (Choice A) may not be the initial priority as it does not directly address the client's complaint of burning. Slowing the infusion (Choice B) may help alleviate discomfort but should not be done before inspecting the site. Stopping the infusion (Choice D) may be necessary, but inspecting the site should come first to determine the appropriate course of action.
A woman is in the active phase of labor. An external monitor has been applied, and a fetal heart deceleration of uniform shape is observed, beginning just as the contraction is underway and returning to the baseline at the end of the contraction. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate?
- A. Administer O2.
- B. Turn the client on her left side.
- C. Notify the physician.
- D. No action is necessary
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: This scenario describes early deceleration due to head compression, which is a benign finding in labor. Early decelerations mirror the contractions and do not require any intervention as they are considered a normal response to fetal head compression. The fetal heart rate returns to baseline at the end of the contraction. In this case, the correct action is no action at the moment. Close monitoring of the mother and baby is essential, but immediate intervention is not required. Administering O2 (Choice A) or turning the client on her left side (Choice B) is not indicated for early decelerations. Notifying the physician (Choice C) is unnecessary for this type of deceleration.