Which of the following individuals would be the most appropriate candidate for immunotherapy?
- A. A patient who had an anaphylactic reaction to an insect sting
- B. A child with allergies to eggs and dairy
- C. A patient who has had a positive tuberculin skin test
- D. A patient with severe allergies to grass and tree pollen
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Immunotherapy, also known as allergy shots, is a form of treatment that can help reduce symptoms for individuals with severe allergies to substances such as pollen, dust mites, or pet dander. This treatment involves exposing the patient to small, increasing doses of the allergen over time to help the immune system gradually build up a tolerance. Patients with severe allergies to grass and tree pollen would most likely benefit from immunotherapy as it can help reduce their allergy symptoms and improve their quality of life. On the other hand, individuals with anaphylactic reactions to insect stings (Choice A), allergies to eggs and dairy (Choice B), or a positive tuberculin skin test (Choice C) are not typically candidates for immunotherapy as their conditions are not related to the type of allergies that are commonly treated with this method.
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A nurse is assessing a patient with an acoustic neuroma who has been recently admitted to an oncology unit. What symptoms is the nurse likely to find during the initial assessment?
- A. Loss of hearing, tinnitus, and vertigo
- B. Loss of vision, change in mental status, and hyperthermia
- C. Loss of hearing, increased sodium retention, and hypertension
- D. Loss of vision, headache, and tachycardia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A nurse assessing a patient with an acoustic neuroma would likely find symptoms such as loss of hearing, tinnitus, and vertigo. Acoustic neuroma, also known as vestibular schwannoma, is a noncancerous tumor that develops on the vestibulocochlear nerve, which carries sound and balance signals from the inner ear to the brain. The most common symptoms of an acoustic neuroma include progressive hearing loss, ringing in the ears (tinnitus), and dizziness or imbalance (vertigo). Therefore, option A is the most appropriate choice for the symptoms that the nurse is likely to find in a patient with an acoustic neuroma.
The nurse is planning discharge education for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. The nurse knows to include information about factors that precipitate an attack. What would the nurse be correct in teaching the patient to avoid?
- A. Washing his face
- B. Exposing his skin to sunlight
- C. Using artificial tears
- D. Drinking large amounts of fluids
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition characterized by severe facial pain due to irritation or damage to the trigeminal nerve. Factors such as touching or lightly brushing the face, chewing, speaking, or even encountering a breeze can trigger an attack. Therefore, activities like washing the face that involve touching or stimulating the trigeminal nerve can precipitate an attack in patients with trigeminal neuralgia. It is important for patients to be aware of these triggers to help manage and prevent episodes of pain.
An older adult patient has been diagnosed with macular degeneration and the nurse is assessing him for changes in visual acuity since his last clinic visit. When assessing the patient for recent changes in visual acuity, the patient states that he sees the lines on an Amsler grid as being distorted. What is the nurses most appropriate response?
- A. Ask if the patient has been using OTC vasoconstrictors.
- B. Instruct the patient to repeat the test at different times of the day when at home.
- C. Arrange for the patient to visit his ophthalmologist.
- D. Encourage the patient to adhere to his prescribed drug regimen. .
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Distorted lines on an Amsler grid can be an indication of changes in central vision, which is commonly seen in macular degeneration. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to arrange for the patient to visit his ophthalmologist promptly for further evaluation and management. The ophthalmologist will be able to determine the severity of the visual changes, provide appropriate treatment options, and closely monitor the progression of macular degeneration. This proactive approach ensures that the patient receives timely and specialized care for his condition. Options A, B, and D do not directly address the urgency of the situation and the need for specialized ophthalmologic evaluation in cases of macular degeneration.
While assessing the patient at the beginning of the shift, the nurse inspects a surgical dressing covering the operative site after the patients cervical diskectomy. The nurse notes that the drainage is 75% saturated with serosanguineous discharge. What is the nurses most appropriate action?
- A. Page the physician and report this sign of infection.
- B. Reinforce the dressing and reassess in 1 to 2 hours.
- C. Reposition the patient to prevent further hemorrhage.
- D. Inform the surgeon of the possibility of a dural leak.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse to take when observing the surgical dressing saturated with serosanguineous drainage is to reinforce the dressing and reassess in 1 to 2 hours. Serosanguineous discharge is a common type of drainage following surgery, as it is a mixture of blood and serum. It is expected in the early stages of wound healing and does not necessarily indicate infection. By reinforcing the dressing and closely monitoring the drainage over the next couple of hours, the nurse can assess if the amount of drainage is decreasing or escalating. If there are any signs of infection, such as increasing redness, warmth, swelling, or excessive purulent discharge, then the nurse should notify the physician promptly. Until then, it is appropriate to continue observing and managing the drainage within the expected range.
The nurse is obtaining a 24-hour urine specimencollection from the patient. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Keeping the urine collection container on ice when indicated
- B. Withholding all patient medications for the day
- C. Irrigating the sample as needed with sterile solution
- D. Testing the urine sample with a reagent strip by dipping it in the urine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When obtaining a 24-hour urine specimen, it is important to keep the urine collection container on ice if indicated. Storing the urine on ice helps to preserve the integrity of certain components in the specimen that might be affected by higher temperatures. Some tests require the sample to be kept cool to ensure accurate results. Therefore, the nurse should follow the specific instructions provided for the collection and storage of the urine specimen.