Nokea
Which of the following infections is typical for the lower respiratory tract?
- A. Haemophilus influenzae pharyngitis
- B. Ozeana
- C. Diphtherial croup
- D. Q-fever
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Q-fever. Q-fever is typically an infection that affects the lower respiratory tract, causing symptoms like pneumonia. Haemophilus influenzae pharyngitis (choice A) is an upper respiratory tract infection. Ozeana (choice B) and diphtherial croup (choice C) are not specific infections related to the lower respiratory tract. Q-fever stands out as the correct choice due to its association with lower respiratory tract infections.
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A patient with probable liver abscess was delivered to a surgical department. The patient for a long time had been on an assignment in an African country and had recurrent cases of gastrointestinal disturbance. What protozoan disease can it be?
- A. Toxoplasmosis
- B. Leishmaniasis
- C. Malaria
- D. Amebiasis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Amebiasis. The patient's symptoms of gastrointestinal disturbance and liver abscess are indicative of an infection with Entamoeba histolytica, the protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis. The patient's travel history to an African country also increases the likelihood of contracting this disease, as it is more prevalent in tropical regions. Toxoplasmosis (A) is primarily associated with exposure to cat feces, Leishmaniasis (B) is transmitted through sandfly bites, and Malaria (C) is caused by Plasmodium parasites transmitted through mosquito bites. Therefore, these options are incorrect given the patient's presentation and travel history.
Specify the most commonly used parameters for autoclaving sterilization:
- A. 1.0 atm., 120º C, 15-20min
- B. 1.0 atm., 130º C, 10 hours
- C. 1.5 atm., 135º C, 5min
- D. 1.0 atm., 160º C, 1 hour
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it specifies the commonly used parameters for autoclaving sterilization: 1.0 atm pressure, 120º C temperature, and 15-20 minutes duration. This combination ensures effective sterilization by providing the necessary heat and pressure for killing microorganisms.
Rationale:
1. Pressure of 1.0 atm: Standard atmospheric pressure commonly used in autoclaving.
2. Temperature of 120º C: Optimal temperature for sterilization without causing damage to heat-sensitive materials.
3. Duration of 15-20 minutes: Time required for heat and pressure to penetrate and kill microorganisms effectively.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Incorrect temperature and duration, too high and long, may damage materials.
C: Incorrect pressure and temperature, higher pressure and temperature not commonly used.
D: Incorrect temperature, too high, can damage materials, and duration is longer than necessary.
Granulomas containing lymphocytes and macrophages were detected during analysis of skin biopsy material. Among macrophages there are large cells with fat inclusions, which contain microorganisms in spheric packages (Virchow's cells). The following disease is based on the described type of hypersensitivity:
- A. Leprosy
- B. Syphilis
- C. Tuberculosis
- D. Rhinoscleroma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tuberculosis. Granulomas with lymphocytes and macrophages containing Virchow's cells (large cells with fat inclusions containing microorganisms) are classic findings in tuberculosis. Leprosy (A) typically presents with granulomas but with different histopathological features. Syphilis (B) does not usually form granulomas in the skin. Rhinoscleroma (D) is a chronic bacterial infection characterized by nodular lesions but does not typically involve Virchow's cells as seen in tuberculosis.
Bacteria that have been identified as frequently responsible for nonsexually transmitted infections of the reproductive system include:
- A. Escherichia coli, Gardnerella vaginalis, and Staphylococcus aureus
- B. Streptococcus faecalis, Klebsiella oxytoca, and Serratia marcescens
- C. Clostridium tetani, Bacillus cereus, and Staphylococcus aureus
- D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Helicobacter pylori, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Escherichia coli, Gardnerella vaginalis, and Staphylococcus aureus) because they are known to commonly cause nonsexually transmitted infections of the reproductive system. Escherichia coli can cause urinary tract infections that can ascend to the reproductive system. Gardnerella vaginalis is associated with bacterial vaginosis, a common infection of the vagina. Staphylococcus aureus can cause infections in the reproductive system through various means.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: Streptococcus faecalis, Klebsiella oxytoca, and Serratia marcescens are not commonly associated with reproductive system infections.
C: Clostridium tetani and Bacillus cereus are not typically involved in reproductive system infections.
D: Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes sexually transmitted infections, Helicobacter pylori causes gastrointestinal issues, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa is more
In which of the following cases of immune reactions a large lattice is formed?
- A. Antibody is in excess
- B. Antigens and antibodies are in optimal proportion
- C. Antigen is in excess
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because in immune reactions, a large lattice is formed when antigens and antibodies are in optimal proportion. This optimal ratio allows for the formation of a strong antigen-antibody complex, leading to the aggregation of immune complexes into large lattice structures. When antibodies are in excess (choice A), there may not be enough antigens to form a stable lattice. Similarly, when antigens are in excess (choice C), there may be insufficient antibodies to form a strong lattice. Choice D is incorrect because the optimal proportion of antigens and antibodies is crucial for the formation of large lattices in immune reactions.