Nokea
Which of the following information should the nurse manager include in the in-service about pain management with opioids for clients who have cancer?
- A. IM administration is recommended if PO opioids are ineffective
- B. Respiratory depression decreases as opioid tolerance develops
- C. Meperidine is the opioid of choice for treating chronic pain
- D. Withhold PRN pain medication for the client who is receiving opioids every 6 hr
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression is a potential side effect of opioids. Tolerance to this effect develops with prolonged opioid use, reducing the risk over time. This information is crucial for nurses managing cancer pain with opioids to ensure patient safety.
Incorrect Choices:
A: IM administration is not necessarily recommended if PO opioids are ineffective as this can lead to delayed pain relief and potential complications.
C: Meperidine is not the opioid of choice for treating chronic pain due to its toxic metabolite accumulation and increased risk of side effects.
D: Withholding PRN pain medication for clients on scheduled opioids can result in inadequate pain control and compromised quality of life.
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Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that a client with myasthenia gravis taking neostigmine is experiencing an adverse effect?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Oliguria
- C. Xerostomia
- D. Miosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Miosis. Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to treat myasthenia gravis. Miosis, or excessive constriction of the pupil, is a sign of cholinergic crisis which can occur due to neostigmine overdose. This adverse effect indicates excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system, leading to symptoms such as increased salivation, bronchoconstriction, and miosis. Tachycardia (A) is not typically associated with neostigmine use, oliguria (B) is not a common adverse effect, and xerostomia (C) is the opposite of the expected effect of increased salivation due to cholinergic stimulation.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. Upon analyzing the assessment findings, the nurse identifies that the client is at risk for _______ due to _______.
- A. concurrent medication use
- B. recent illness
- C. activity level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: concurrent medication use. This is because identifying a client at risk for a condition due to concurrent medication use is crucial in nursing assessment. Medications can interact with each other, leading to adverse effects or reduced efficacy. Recent illness (B) and activity level (C) are important factors but do not directly relate to the risk due to medication use. The other choices (D, E, F, G) are irrelevant and do not address the potential risks associated with medication interactions. Thus, A is the most appropriate choice for identifying a client's risk based on assessment findings related to medication use.
For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor a client who is prescribed metoclopramide following bowel surgery?
- A. Muscle weakness
- B. Sedation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sedation. Metoclopramide is a medication that can cause sedation as a side effect. After bowel surgery, sedation can mask signs of postoperative complications such as abdominal pain or changes in vital signs. Muscle weakness (A), tinnitus (C), and peripheral edema (D) are not common adverse effects of metoclopramide and would not typically be monitored for in this situation. Sedation is the most relevant adverse effect to monitor for in a client post-bowel surgery, as it can impact the assessment and management of their recovery.
Which of the following actions of sucralfate should the nurse include in the teaching for a client who is to start a new prescription for sucralfate for peptic ulcer disease?
- A. Decreases stomach acid secretion
- B. Neutralizes acids in the stomach
- C. Forms a protective barrier over ulcers
- D. Treats ulcers by eradicating H. pylori
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Forms a protective barrier over ulcers. Sucralfate works by forming a protective barrier over ulcers in the stomach and small intestine, providing a physical barrier to prevent further damage from stomach acid. This action helps promote healing of the ulcers. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sucralfate does not decrease stomach acid secretion, neutralize acids in the stomach, or treat ulcers by eradicating H. pylori bacteria. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the mechanism of action of sucralfate to ensure understanding and adherence to the treatment plan.
A nurse is teaching a client about cyclobenzaprinWhich of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the teaching about cyclobenzaprine was effective?
- A. I will have increased saliva production
- B. I will continue taking the medication until the rash disappears
- C. I will taper off the medication before discontinuing it
- D. I will report any urinary incontinence
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C. "I will taper off the medication before discontinuing it."
Rationale: Tapering off cyclobenzaprine is important to prevent withdrawal symptoms due to its muscle relaxant properties. Abruptly stopping the medication can lead to adverse effects. This statement indicates understanding of proper medication management.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Increased saliva production is not a common side effect of cyclobenzaprine.
B: Continuing the medication until the rash disappears is not relevant to cyclobenzaprine.
D: Reporting urinary incontinence is important but not specifically related to cyclobenzaprine teaching.