Which of the following is a disadvantage of IM administration?
- A. Larger volumes can be used
- B. Can affect lab tests
- C. Painful
- D. B and C
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intramuscular (IM) administration is painful due to needle insertion, though larger volumes are an advantage; affecting lab tests is less specific, making C the primary disadvantage.
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Kelly has diarrhea and is wondering if she can take loperamide (Imodium) for the diarrhea. Loperamide:
- A. Can be given to patients of all ages, including infants and children, for viral gastroenteritis
- B. Slows gastric motility and reduces fluid and electrolyte loss from diarrhea
- C. Is the treatment of choice for the diarrhea associated with E. coli 0157
- D. May be used in pregnancy and by lactating women
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Loperamide slows motility to reduce diarrhea; it's not for infants , E. coli 0157 (C, risks toxicity), or universally safe in pregnancy .
Which of the following drugs interacts with nitroglycerine by inhibiting the metabolism of cGMP?
- A. Amyl nitrite
- B. Sildenafil
- C. Isosorbide mononitrate
- D. Nifedipine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sildenafil, a PDE5 inhibitor, increases cGMP, enhancing nitroglycerin's hypotensive effect.
A nurse is planning to administer a first dose of Captopril to a client who has hypertension. Which of the following medications can intensify first dose hypotension? (Select one that does not apply.)
- A. Simvastatin
- B. Hydrochlorothiazide
- C. aliskiren
- D. Clonidine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diuretics , clonidine , and aliskiren enhance hypotension with captopril's first dose.
After teaching a group of nursing students about pharmacokinetics, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as the first phase?
- A. Metabolism
- B. Absorption
- C. Distribution
- D. Excretion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics refers to the transportation activity of drugs in the body after administration. The first component is absorption. This is followed by distribution, metabolism, and finally excretion.
A 52-year-old overweight woman presents to the clinic for a diabetes management. She had not been doing well controlling her blood sugars with metformin. Her last hemoglobin A1c was 13.4%, despite her taking her medication every day. The physician decides to start her on a long-acting insulin that is injected only once a day for better glucose control. Also, he wants the insulin to have a minimal risk of hypoglycemia. What is the most likely medication given to this patient?
- A. Insulin aspart
- B. Insulin glargine
- C. Insulin lispro
- D. NPH insulin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting, peakless insulin administered once daily, with a lower risk of hypoglycemia compared to other insulins.