Nokea
Which of the following is an early sign of anemia?
- A. Palpitations
- B. Pallor
- C. Glossitis
- D. Weight loss
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pallor. Pallor, which refers to paleness of the skin, is an early sign of anemia due to decreased red blood cell levels. Anemia causes reduced oxygen delivery to tissues, leading to paleness. Palpitations (A) may occur in anemia but are not an early sign. Glossitis (C) and weight loss (D) are not typically early signs of anemia and are more commonly associated with other health conditions.
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A client with thrombocytopenia secondary to leukemia develops epistaxis. The nurse should instruct the client to:
- A. Lie supine with his neck extended
- B. Sit upright, leaning slightly forward
- C. Blow his nose and then put lateral pressure on his nose
- D. Hold his nose while bending forward at the waist
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sit upright, leaning slightly forward. This position helps to minimize blood flow to the head, reducing the risk of increased bleeding. It also prevents blood from flowing down the throat, reducing the risk of aspiration.
A: Lying supine with the neck extended can increase pressure on the blood vessels in the head, potentially worsening the epistaxis.
C: Blowing the nose and putting lateral pressure can disrupt any clots that may have formed and increase bleeding.
D: Holding the nose while bending forward at the waist can lead to blood flowing down the throat and increase the risk of aspiration.
Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate when a patient returns to his or her room after a bronchoscopy?
- A. Order a meal because the patient has been nil per os (NPO) for 8 hours.
- B. Encourage fluids to flush dye from the patient’s system.
- C. Monitor the patient for return to consciousness.
- D. Check for a gag reflex before allowing the patient to drink.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - Check for a gag reflex before allowing the patient to drink. This is important after a bronchoscopy to prevent aspiration. Step 1: Assessing gag reflex ensures the patient can protect their airway. Step 2: Aspiration risk is high post-bronchoscopy due to sedation and possible throat numbness. Step 3: Allowing fluids without confirming gag reflex can lead to aspiration pneumonia. Other choices are incorrect. A: Ordering a meal immediately is inappropriate after NPO period. B: Encouraging fluids without assessing gag reflex may lead to aspiration. C: Monitoring consciousness is important but not directly related to post-bronchoscopy care.
The Glasgow coma scale is used to .evaluate the level of consciousness in the neurological and neurological patients. The three assessment factors included in this scale are:
- A. pupil size, response to pain, motor responses
- B. Pupil size, verbal response, motor response
- C. Eye opening, verbal response, motor response
- D. Eye opening, response to pain, motor response J.E, is an 18-year old freshman admitted to the ICU following a motor vehicle accident in which he sustained multiple trauma including a ruptured spleen, myocardial contusion, fractured pelvis, and fractured right femur. He had a mild contusion, but is alert and oriented. His vital signs BP 120/80, pulse 84, respirations 12, and temperature 99 F orally.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses the level of consciousness by evaluating these three factors. Eye opening assesses the patient's ability to open their eyes spontaneously or in response to stimuli. Verbal response evaluates the patient's ability to speak or respond to verbal stimuli. Motor response assesses the patient's motor function by testing responses to commands or painful stimuli. Choice A is incorrect because it includes "response to pain" instead of "verbal response." Choice B is incorrect because it includes "verbal response" instead of "eye opening." Choice D is incorrect because it includes "eye opening" instead of "verbal response." In summary, the GCS evaluates eye opening, verbal response, and motor response to determine the level of consciousness in patients.
The nurse is caring for a client who’s hypoglycemic. This client will have a blood glucose level:
- A. Below 70mg/dl
- B. Between 120 and 180mg/dl
- C. Between 70 and 120mg/dl
- D. Over 180mg/dl
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Below 70mg/dl. Hypoglycemia is defined as a blood glucose level below 70mg/dl. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include confusion, shakiness, and sweating. Treating hypoglycemia involves administering fast-acting carbohydrates. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe blood glucose levels that are within the normal or hyperglycemic range, which are not indicative of hypoglycemia. It is essential for the nurse to recognize and promptly address hypoglycemia to prevent serious complications.
Mrs. Go a 75-year old female suffered a fdall and is diagnosed with a herniated nucleus pulposus at the C4-C5 interspace, and a second st the C5-C6 interspace.Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to discover during the assessment?
- A. constant, throbbing headaches
- B. clonus in the lower extremities
- C. Numbness of the face
- D. pain in the scapular region
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: pain in the scapular region. This is because a herniated nucleus pulposus at the C4-C5 and C5-C6 interspaces typically results in pain radiating from the neck to the scapular region due to nerve compression at those levels. The other choices are incorrect as constant, throbbing headaches are not typically associated with this specific diagnosis, clonus in the lower extremities is more indicative of lower spinal cord involvement, and numbness of the face is not a common symptom of herniated discs at these levels.