Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention activity?
- A. Administering immunizations
- B. Physical therapy for stroke patients
- C. Routine health screenings
- D. Health education campaigns
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Physical therapy for stroke patients, as it falls under tertiary prevention aimed at reducing the impact of a disease or disability. Physical therapy helps stroke patients regain function and improve quality of life post-onset. A: Administering immunizations is an example of primary prevention, preventing a disease from occurring. C: Routine health screenings are a form of secondary prevention, detecting diseases early to prevent progression. D: Health education campaigns can be both primary (preventing disease occurrence) or secondary prevention (early detection).
You may also like to solve these questions
When a nurse observes a fellow nurse preparing an incorrect dose of medication, what is the best action to take?
- A. Ignore the error
- B. Administer the medication anyway
- C. Correct the error without informing the nurse
- D. Report the error to the supervisor immediately
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report the error to the supervisor immediately. This action prioritizes patient safety and prevents harm. It follows ethical guidelines by promoting transparency and accountability. Reporting the error also upholds professional standards and fosters a culture of continuous learning and improvement. Ignoring the error (A) risks patient harm. Administering the medication anyway (B) compromises patient safety. Correcting the error without informing the nurse (C) overlooks the importance of addressing the root cause and preventing future mistakes.
A nurse is talking with the partner of a client who has dementia. The client's partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for their partner. The nurse should identify that the partner is experiencing which of the following types of role-performance stress?
- A. Role ambiguity
- B. Role overload
- C. Role conflict
- D. Sick role
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Role conflict. Role conflict occurs when an individual experiences conflicting demands from different roles they hold, causing stress. In this scenario, the partner is struggling to balance the roles of caregiver and managing household responsibilities, leading to frustration.
A: Role ambiguity refers to uncertainty or lack of clarity about one's responsibilities, which is not evident in the scenario.
B: Role overload is when an individual has too many responsibilities to manage effectively, but in this case, the partner is specifically struggling with conflicting roles.
D: Sick role is when an individual's illness affects their ability to fulfill their roles, which is not the primary issue in this scenario.
In summary, the partner's frustration in balancing caregiving and household responsibilities indicates role conflict as the correct type of role-performance stress being experienced.
Which of the following is a recommendation for avoiding charges of negligence and false imprisonment for confused clients?
- A. Carefully assess and document client status.
- B. Ensure all patient information is secure and the nurse has logged out of the computer before leaving the computer station.
- C. Keep detailed notes while providing care to ensure accurate documentation later in the day.
- D. Discuss safety needs with clients.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct:
1. Careful assessment helps in understanding the client's condition and needs.
2. Documenting client status provides evidence of the care provided.
3. It ensures that necessary actions are taken promptly to prevent negligence.
4. Documentation serves as legal protection against false imprisonment accusations.
Summary:
- Choice B is about data security, not directly related to preventing negligence and false imprisonment.
- Choice C focuses on accurate documentation but lacks the emphasis on assessment.
- Choice D is vague and does not specifically address the legal aspects of negligence and false imprisonment.
Which type of HMO contracts with two or more IPAs (Independent Practice Associations)?
- A. Staff model
- B. Point of service model
- C. Network model
- D. Group model
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Network model. In this model, the HMO contracts with multiple IPAs, allowing members to choose from a wider network of physicians. This promotes flexibility and choice. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Staff model involves directly employing physicians, not contracting with IPAs.
B: Point of service model allows members to go outside the network for care, not necessarily contracting with IPAs.
D: Group model involves physicians working in a group practice, not IPAs.
Which of the following scenarios would be an example of shared governance on a nursing unit?
- A. Staff nurses delegate activities to CNAs.
- B. Procedure manuals are written by a committee of nurse managers.
- C. Staff nurses and CNAs make their own schedules.
- D. A unit manager seeks advice from her supervisor.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because shared governance involves staff nurses and CNAs collaborating in decision-making processes, such as creating schedules. This promotes autonomy, teamwork, and mutual respect. Option A involves delegation, not shared decision-making. Option B shows centralized authority by nurse managers. Option D indicates hierarchical decision-making, not shared governance. In summary, choice C aligns with the principles of shared governance, while the other options do not involve the active involvement of both staff nurses and CNAs in decision-making.