Nokea
Which of the following is an example of intragroup conflict?
- A. A nurse writes a grant for a non-profit organization to raise money for advertising
- B. Members of a multidisciplinary team cannot agree on the best course of action for a client
- C. A client does not receive his medication on time because the nurse was on break
- D. A nurse feels frustrated that her employer does not provide on-site child care
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Intragroup conflict refers to disagreements within a group. The correct answer, 'Members of a multidisciplinary team cannot agree on the best course of action for a client,' exemplifies this type of conflict well. In this scenario, professionals within the same team are unable to reach a consensus on how to proceed with client care. Choices A, C, and D do not reflect intragroup conflict. Writing a grant for a non-profit organization, a client not receiving medication due to a nurse's break, and a nurse feeling frustrated about the lack of on-site child care do not involve conflicts within a group of professionals.
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The client with multiple sclerosis is being educated by the nurse on exercises and physical activities. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. "I can lift weights and engage in resistance training."?
- B. "I should exercise until I am exhausted."?
- C. "I can incorporate aerobic exercises into my routine."?
- D. "I should perform proper stretching before starting my routine."?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is, "I should exercise until I am exhausted."? This statement indicates a need for further teaching because patients with multiple sclerosis should avoid exercising to the point of exhaustion or fatigue. Strenuous physical activity can increase body temperature and potentially worsen symptoms in individuals with multiple sclerosis. Choice A is correct because lifting weights and resistance training can be appropriate exercises for patients with multiple sclerosis. Choice C is valid because aerobic exercises can also be beneficial. Choice D is accurate as proper stretching before starting an exercise routine is essential for preventing injuries.
A child has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). The parents are receiving genetic counseling prior to planning another pregnancy. Which of the following statements includes the most accurate information?
- A. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers and sons a 50% chance of developing the disease.
- B. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so both daughters and sons have a 50% chance of developing the disease.
- C. Each child has a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.
- D. Sons only have a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the affected gene is located on one of the two X chromosomes of a female carrier. If a son receives the X chromosome bearing the gene, he will develop the disease, giving him a 50% chance of being affected. Daughters, on the other hand, are not affected by Duchenne but have a 50% chance of being carriers since they inherit one copy of the defective gene from the mother. The other X chromosome is inherited from the father, who cannot be a carrier. Therefore, choice A is accurate. Choice B is incorrect because daughters do not develop the disease, and sons have a 50% chance of developing, not both having a 50% chance. Choice C is incorrect as it does not consider the X-linked inheritance pattern of Duchenne. Choice D is inaccurate as it incorrectly states that only sons have a 25% chance of developing the disorder, omitting the carrier status of daughters.
An 18-year-old male patient informs the nurse that he isn't sure if he is homosexual because he is attracted to both genders. The nurse establishes a trusting relationship with the patient by saying:
- A. Don't worry. It's just a phase you will grow out of.
- B. Those are abnormal impulses. You should seek therapy.
- C. At your age, it is normal to be curious about both genders.
- D. Having questions about sexuality is normal. Have you noticed any changes in the way this makes you feel about yourself?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: It is important for the nurse to validate the patient's concerns and provide a supportive environment. By acknowledging that it is normal for young adults to have questions about sexuality, the nurse helps the patient feel understood and accepted. This response encourages further discussion and exploration of the patient's feelings without judgment. Choice A dismisses the patient's concerns and implies that his feelings are not valid. Choice B stigmatizes the patient's feelings by labeling them as abnormal and suggests therapy without proper assessment. Choice D addresses the patient's feelings but lacks the validation and reassurance present in the correct answer, which is essential in building a trusting relationship with the patient.
The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:
- A. Excessive fetal weight
- B. Low blood sugar levels
- C. Depletion of subcutaneous fat
- D. Progressive placental insufficiency
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.
When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?
- A. Following surgery
- B. Upon admission
- C. Within 48 hours of discharge
- D. Preoperative discussion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.