Nokea
Which of the following is classified as a mood disorder?
- A. bipolar disorder
- B. multiple personality disorder
- C. delusional disorder
- D. dissociative disorder
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bipolar disorder, with its mood swings, is a classic mood disorder.
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A mother discusses her concerns about genetic transmission of schizophrenia with the nurse saying, 'My son is a fraternal twin. He has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Will my other son develop schizophrenia, too?' The response that is both sensitive and shows understanding of the genetic component is:
- A. You poor woman! I wish I could tell you he will be free of the disorder.'
- B. Studies show that 50% of twins develop schizophrenia when it is present in the other twin.'
- C. No one can say what will happen, so we will hope for the best for you and your sons.'
- D. In fraternal twins, the chance of the other twin developing the disorder is quite small.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides an accurate and sensitive response. Fraternal twins do not share the same genetic makeup as identical twins, so the genetic risk for the other twin developing schizophrenia is lower. By acknowledging this fact, the nurse offers reassurance to the mother without giving false hope or inaccurate statistics. This response shows understanding of the genetic component of schizophrenia and addresses the mother's concerns in a compassionate and informative manner.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect:
A: This response is dismissive of the mother's concerns and does not provide any helpful information. It also lacks sensitivity and empathy towards the mother's situation.
B: This response provides an inaccurate statistic about the likelihood of the other twin developing schizophrenia. It does not consider the difference between identical and fraternal twins, leading to a potentially misleading statement.
C: This response is vague and does not address the mother's question directly. It does not provide any useful information or reassurance, leaving the mother uncertain and anxious about
Explain four (4) the behavioral features of Anorexia Nervosa
- A. Restricting food intake
- B. Excessive exercise
- C. Body image distortion
- D. Fear of weight gain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: These behaviors reflect the core features of anorexia: restriction, overactivity, distorted perception, and weight obsession.
A community health nurse is working with a family in which an elderly woman was neglected by her son and his wife. The elderly woman insists on remaining with the young couple despite the threat of future neglect. Which intervention should be given highest priority?
- A. Identify community resources to decrease the caregivers' stress.
- B. Establish family obligations, client rights, and consequences of abuse and monitor.
- C. Educate the caregivers on the aging process and how to cope with it.
- D. Provide stress management techniques for the caregivers.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because establishing family obligations, client rights, and consequences of abuse is crucial in protecting the elderly woman from neglect. By setting clear boundaries and educating the family on their responsibilities and the consequences of neglect, the nurse can help ensure the woman's safety. This intervention addresses the root cause of the issue and empowers the family to understand and fulfill their duties.
Choice A is incorrect as solely focusing on decreasing caregivers' stress may not address the underlying neglect. Choice C is incorrect as educating caregivers on the aging process does not directly address the neglect issue. Choice D is incorrect as providing stress management techniques does not address the root cause of neglect or establish accountability within the family.
A 5-year-old boy is diagnosed in the Emergency Department as having measles, the first symptoms having started 2 days previously. He has a 2-year-old sister, who has received the recommended immunisation schedule. Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
- A. Treat him symptomatically and send him home.
- B. Refer him to the infectious diseases hospital.
- C. Give him gamma globulin.
- D. Give gamma goblin to the sister.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Measles is managed symptomatically at home (A) unless complications arise. The vaccinated sister is protected, so hospitalization (B), gamma globulin (C, D), or premature reassurance (E) are unnecessary.
A useful strategy for helping a patient with schizophrenia manage a potential relapse is to:
- A. have the patient attend group therapy.
- B. advise the patient to continue taking medication daily.
- C. teach the patient and family about behaviors that indicate impending relapse.
- D. schedule appointments for blood tests to determine serum medication levels.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because teaching the patient and family about behaviors indicating an impending relapse helps in early detection and intervention. This empowers them to recognize warning signs like changes in behavior or mood, allowing for prompt action.
Choice A (group therapy) may be beneficial for support but does not directly address relapse prevention. Choice B (medication adherence) is crucial but not specific to relapse management. Choice D (blood tests) is important for monitoring medication levels but does not focus on recognizing relapse indicators.