Nokea
Which of the following is contraindicated for a client diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
- A. Treating the underlying cause.
- B. Administering heparin.
- C. Administering warfarin sodium (Coumadin).
- D. Replacing depleted blood products.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Warfarin is contraindicated in DIC because it further inhibits clotting factors, worsening bleeding. Treating the underlying cause, administering heparin (to stop clotting), and replacing blood products are standard treatments to manage DIC.
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Which of the following activities should the nurse teach the client to implement after the removal of nasal packing on the second postoperative day?
- A. Avoid cleaning the nares until swelling has subsided.
- B. Apply water-soluble jelly to lubricate the nares.
- C. Keep a nasal drip pad in place to absorb secretions.
- D. Use a bulb syringe to gently irrigate nares.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Applying water-soluble jelly lubricates the nares, preventing crusting and discomfort post-packing removal. Cleaning is safe once packing is removed. A drip pad is unnecessary unless bleeding persists. Irrigation with a bulb syringe is not standard care.
Which of the following is a priority outcome for the client with Addison's disease?
- A. Maintenance of medication compliance.
- B. Adherence to a 2-g sodium diet.
- C. Prevention of hypertensive episodes.
- D. Demonstration of effective coping skills.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Medication compliance is critical in Addison's disease to prevent adrenal crisis and maintain hormonal balance.
The nurse is to administer subcutaneous heparin to an older adult. What facts should the nurse keep in mind when administering this dose? Select all that apply.
- A. It should be administered in the anterior area of the iliac crest.
- B. The onset is immediate.
- C. Use a 27G, 5/8€ needle.
- D. Cephalosporin potentiates the effects of heparin.
- E. Double check the dose with another nurse.
Correct Answer: C,E
Rationale: Subcutaneous heparin should be administered using a 27-gauge, 5/8-inch needle to ensure proper delivery into subcutaneous tissue. Due to the risk of bleeding, the dose should be double-checked with another nurse. The anterior iliac crest is not a standard site (abdomen is preferred), onset is not immediate (takes hours), and cephalosporins do not potentiate heparin's effects.
The nurse is preparing to administer prescribed medications to a client via a nasogastric tube connected to low-intermittent suction. The nurse should take which appropriate action? Select all that apply.
- A. Position the client in Trendelenburg position.
- B. Verify correct placement of the tube before medication administration.
- C. Turn off the suction during medication administration.
- D. Resume low-intermittent wall suction immediately after medication administration.
- E. Irrigate the nasogastric tube (NGT) with sterile water.
Correct Answer: B,C
Rationale: Verifying tube placement and turning off suction ensure safe medication administration; Trendelenburg is inappropriate, and sterile water is not required.
A 68-year-old client with colon cancer experiences an increase in his feelings of anxiety and depression and has suicidal ideation. He appears to be in great distress. The nurse realizes that he is at which stage in his disease?
- A. Initiation of definitive treatment.
- B. End of his first course of treatment.
- C. End stage of his disease.
- D. Recurrence of the disease.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Increased anxiety, depression, and suicidal ideation suggest the client is in the end stage of colon cancer, facing mortality and existential distress.