Nokea
Which of the following is not a complication of menopause?
- A. Fractures
- B. Alzheimer's disease
- C. Congestive heart failure
- D. Painful intercourse
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Congestive heart failure is not typically associated with menopause. Menopause is linked to an increased risk of fractures due to bone density loss, a higher risk of Alzheimer's disease due to hormonal changes affecting the brain, and painful intercourse due to vaginal dryness and decreased lubrication. While cardiovascular health can be affected by menopause, congestive heart failure is not a direct complication of menopause.
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Which of the following is a contraceptive?
- A. Copper T
- B. Condom
- C. Diaphragm
- D. All of these
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of these. Copper T, Condom, and Diaphragm are all examples of contraceptives used to prevent pregnancy. Copper T is an intrauterine device (IUD) that is placed inside the uterus to prevent pregnancy. Condoms are barrier contraceptives worn over the penis or inserted into the vagina to prevent sperm from reaching the egg. Diaphragms are also barrier contraceptives that cover the cervix to prevent sperm from entering the uterus. Therefore, all options listed (Copper T, Condom, Diaphragm) are indeed contraceptives, making 'All of these' the correct choice.
The surgical procedure done in Bartholin's abscess is called:
- A. Hysterectomy
- B. Oophorectomy
- C. Marsupialization
- D. Salpingectomy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Marsupialization. Marsupialization is the surgical procedure specifically performed for Bartholin's abscess. This procedure involves creating a new duct for the Bartholin's gland to prevent future abscess formation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hysterectomy involves the removal of the uterus, oophorectomy involves the removal of the ovaries, and salpingectomy involves the removal of the fallopian tubes, none of which are the appropriate procedures for treating a Bartholin's abscess.
In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test?
- A. Threatened
- B. Imminent
- C. Missed
- D. Incomplete
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test are characteristic of a missed abortion. In a missed abortion, the fetus has died, but the products of conception are retained in the uterus. This can lead to symptoms like dark brown vaginal discharge as the body tries to expel the nonviable pregnancy. A threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding without dilation of the cervix, and the pregnancy remains viable. Imminent abortion involves cervical dilation and effacement with no passage of tissue. In an incomplete abortion, only part of the products of conception are expelled, leading to persistent bleeding and cramping.
How does human sperm move?
- A. Flagella
- B. Cilia
- C. Neutrophils
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Human sperm moves using flagella, which are whip-like structures that aid in propulsion. Flagella are tail-like structures found in sperm cells and help them swim towards the egg for fertilization. Cilia are shorter, hair-like structures that are not involved in the movement of sperm. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response and are not related to sperm locomotion.
When does a broad ligament haematoma occur?
- A. Rupture occurs in the mesenteric border of the tube.
- B. Rupture occurs in the ovarian ligament.
- C. Rupture occurs in the broad ligament.
- D. Rupture occurs in the uterine wall.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A broad ligament hematoma occurs when there is a rupture in the mesenteric border of the tube. This typically happens due to trauma or other underlying conditions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because a broad ligament hematoma specifically involves a rupture in the mesenteric border of the tube, not the ovarian ligament, broad ligament, or uterine wall.