Which of the following is seen in first order kinetics
- A. Rate depends upon plasma cone.
- B. Rate does not depend on plasma cone.
- C. Rate depends upon plasma protein binding
- D. Elimination depends upon amount of drug
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In first-order kinetics, the elimination rate is proportional to plasma concentration.
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Glimepiride (Amaryl) is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. A nurse reinforces instructions for the client and tells the client to avoid which of the following while taking this medication?
- A. Alcohol
- B. Organ meats
- C. Whole-grain cereals
- D. Carbonated beverages
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When alcohol is combined with glimepiride (Amaryl), a disulfiram-like reaction may occur. This syndrome includes flushing, palpitations, and nausea. Alcohol can also potentiate the hypoglycemic effects of the medication. Clients need to be instructed to avoid alcohol consumption while taking this medication. The items in options 2, 3, and 4 do not need to be avoided.
Daniel has been on 60 mg of prednisone for 10 days to treat a severe asthma exacerbation. It is time to discontinue the prednisone. How is prednisone discontinued?
- A. Patients with asthma are transitioned directly off the prednisone onto inhaled corticosteroids
- B. Prednisone can be abruptly discontinued with no adverse effects
- C. Develop a tapering schedule to slowly wean Daniel off the prednisone
- D. Substitute the prednisone with another anti-inflammatory such as ibuprofen
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tapering prevents adrenal suppression after high-dose prednisone; abrupt stop risks crisis.
Jacob has hypertension, for which a calcium channel blocker has been prescribed. This drug helps control blood pressure because it:
- A. Decreases the amount of calcium inside the cell
- B. Reduces stroke volume
- C. Increases the activity of the Na+/K+/ATPase pump indirectly
- D. Decreases heart rate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Calcium channel blockers reduce intracellular calcium, relaxing vascular smooth muscle.
A 70-year-old patient has just received a drug that can cause sedation. What would be the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?
- A. Noncompliance: Cost of the drug
- B. Deficient knowledge: Unfamiliar with drug therapy
- C. Risk for injury: Related to adverse effects of the drug
- D. Ineffective health maintenance: Need for medication
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sedation increases the risk of falls or injury, making 'Risk for injury' the priority diagnosis over knowledge deficits or compliance issues.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Digoxin. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor and report which of the following adverse effects that is a manifestation Digoxin toxicity? (Select one that does not apply.)
- A. Fatigue
- B. Constipation
- C. Anorexia
- D. Diplopia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fatigue , anorexia , and diplopia are signs of digoxin toxicity.
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