Nokea
Which of the following is the best strategy for managing dehydration in a client?
- A. Encourage the client to drink more water
- B. Monitor fluid and electrolyte levels frequently
- C. Administer oral rehydration solutions
- D. Increase the IV fluid rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best strategy for managing dehydration in a client is to monitor fluid and electrolyte levels frequently. This allows healthcare providers to assess the client's hydration status accurately and make informed decisions regarding treatment. Encouraging the client to drink more water (Choice A) may not be sufficient if the dehydration is severe and requires specific interventions. Administering oral rehydration solutions (Choice C) can be beneficial but should be guided by monitoring the client's condition. Increasing the IV fluid rate (Choice D) may be necessary in certain cases, but it is not always the initial or best approach, as monitoring is crucial to avoid fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
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How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with potential pneumonia?
- A. Assess lung sounds and monitor oxygen saturation
- B. Monitor for fever and sputum production
- C. Auscultate heart sounds and check for cyanosis
- D. Monitor for chest pain and administer oxygen
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a serum sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Numbness of the extremities.
- B. Abdominal cramping.
- C. Bradycardia.
- D. Positive Chvostek's sign.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Abdominal cramping is a common manifestation of hyponatremia, as the sodium imbalance affects muscle function. Numbness of the extremities (Choice A) is more commonly associated with electrolyte imbalances such as hypocalcemia. Bradycardia (Choice C) is not typically a direct manifestation of hyponatremia. Positive Chvostek's sign (Choice D) is related to hypocalcemia, not hyponatremia.
What are the key signs of respiratory distress?
- A. Increased respiratory rate and use of accessory muscles
- B. Decreased respiratory rate and cyanosis
- C. Cyanosis and use of accessory muscles
- D. Altered mental status and bradycardia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased respiratory rate and use of accessory muscles are key signs of respiratory distress. When a person is experiencing respiratory distress, their respiratory rate typically increases as the body tries to compensate for the inadequate oxygenation. Additionally, the use of accessory muscles indicates that the person is working harder to breathe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the key signs of respiratory distress. A decreased respiratory rate, cyanosis, altered mental status, and bradycardia are not typical signs of respiratory distress.
A nurse is instructing a group of nursing students about the responsibilities involved with organ donation and procurement. When the nurse explains that all clients waiting for a kidney transplant have to meet the same qualifications, the students should understand that this aspect of care delivery is an example of which ethical principle?
- A. Fidelity
- B. Autonomy
- C. Justice
- D. Non-maleficence
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Justice. Justice in healthcare ethics refers to fairness and equality in the distribution of resources and treatments. In this scenario, ensuring that all clients waiting for a kidney transplant meet the same qualifications demonstrates the ethical principle of justice by providing equal opportunities for all candidates. Choice A, fidelity, pertains to keeping promises and being faithful to agreements, which is not the primary ethical principle at play in this situation. Autonomy, choice B, relates to respecting a patient's right to make their own decisions, which is not directly applicable in the context of organ transplant qualifications. Non-maleficence, choice D, refers to the principle of doing no harm, which is important but not the primary ethical principle highlighted in this scenario.
A nurse is collecting data from a client who has Tourette syndrome. The client reports taking haloperidol 0.5 mL orally three times a day at home. Which of the following components of the prescription should the nurse question?
- A. Frequency
- B. Dosage
- C. Timing of doses
- D. Route
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should question the dosage of haloperidol as it is typically administered in milligrams (mg) and not milliliters (mL). The dosage should be expressed in a standardized unit for accuracy and to prevent medication errors. Frequency, timing of doses, and route are also important components of a prescription, but in this case, the nurse should focus on the unusual dosage form.