Nokea
Which of the following is the most common childhood mental disorder?
- A. ADHD
- B. Aspergers syndrome
- C. Conduct disorder
- D. Enuresis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ADHD (attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder) is the most common mental disorder in the 8 to 15 year old age group.
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An example of a Developmental Disorder is:
- A. ADHD
- B. Dyslexia
- C. Mental Retardation
- D. Autistic spectrum disorders
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Autistic Spectrum Disorder (ASD): An umbrella term that refers to all disorders that display autistic style symptoms across a wide range of severity and disability.
A 19-year-old client is admitted for the second time in 9 months and is acutely psychotic with a diagnosis of undifferentiated schizophrenia. The client sits alone rubbing her arms and smiling. She tells the nurse her thoughts cause earthquakes and that the world is burning. The nurse assesses the primary deficit associated with the client's condition as:
- A. Altered mood states
- B. Disturbed thinking
- C. Social isolation
- D. Poor impulse control
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disturbed thinking. In this scenario, the client's belief that her thoughts cause earthquakes and the world is burning are examples of delusions, which are a key symptom of schizophrenia. This demonstrates a disturbance in the client's thought process, indicating a primary deficit in thinking. Altered mood states (A) may be present as well but are not the primary deficit in this case. Social isolation (C) is a consequence of the client's symptoms rather than the primary deficit. Poor impulse control (D) is not the primary issue presented in the scenario.
A client with antisocial personality disorder yells, 'Shut up about that, or I'll punch you in the nose!' and shakes his fist at another client in a group meeting after the client speaks negatively of illicit drug use. The nurse quickly determines that the client is at risk to act violently against others as evidenced by his aggressive behavior, verbal threats, and a history of impulsivity. Which is the best approach for the nurse to use?
- A. Seclude the client to protect the other clients and staff.
- B. Put the client in restraints to protect the milieu.
- C. Explore alternate ways to handle frustrating topics in the group.
- D. Tell the client to leave the group until he can behave appropriately.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Explore alternate ways to handle frustrating topics in the group. This approach is best because it focuses on addressing the underlying issue causing the client's aggression rather than just isolating or restraining the client. By exploring alternate ways to handle frustrating topics, the nurse can help the client develop healthier coping mechanisms and communication skills. This approach promotes therapeutic engagement and supports the client's growth and development.
Secluding the client (choice A) may escalate the situation and reinforce the client's aggressive behavior. Putting the client in restraints (choice B) is a restrictive measure that should only be used as a last resort for imminent danger. Telling the client to leave the group (choice D) may not address the root cause of the aggression and could lead to avoidance of addressing the client's issues.
The elderly spouse of a 74-year-old male client states that she has noticed that her husband 'doesn't remember as well as he used to.' She explains that he has been putting on his coat before his shirt, and that he can never get their checkbook to balance as it did in the past. The client is exhibiting signs and symptoms typical of:
- A. Vascular dementia
- B. Alzheimer's disease
- C. Acute delirium
- D. Aging
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alzheimer's disease. The client's symptoms of memory loss, confusion, and difficulty with daily tasks point towards Alzheimer's disease, a progressive neurodegenerative disorder affecting memory and cognitive function. Vascular dementia (A) typically presents with a history of stroke or cardiovascular disease, which is not indicated in the scenario. Acute delirium (C) is a sudden and fluctuating change in mental status often caused by medical conditions or medications, not a progressive decline like Alzheimer's. Aging (D) is a natural process and does not explain the specific symptoms described.
Which of the following is a potential complication of untreated bulimia nervosa?
- A. Severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
- B. Rapid weight gain and fluid retention.
- C. Chronic constipation and digestive issues.
- D. Severe malnutrition and organ failure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Untreated bulimia nervosa involves recurrent episodes of binge-eating followed by compensatory behaviors like purging. Purging can lead to fluid loss and electrolyte imbalances, causing dehydration. This can result in serious health complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and kidney damage. Rapid weight gain and fluid retention (B) are more associated with binge-eating disorder, not bulimia nervosa. Chronic constipation and digestive issues (C) are more commonly seen in anorexia nervosa. Severe malnutrition and organ failure (D) are potential complications of anorexia nervosa rather than bulimia nervosa.