Nokea
Which of the following is the most numerous type of white blood cell (WBC)?
- A. Neutrophil
- B. Basophil
- C. Eosinophil
- D. Lymphocyte
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutrophil. Neutrophils are the most numerous type of WBC, typically comprising 50-70% of total WBC count. They are key players in the body's immune response, phagocytizing pathogens. Basophils, eosinophils, and lymphocytes are less numerous than neutrophils. Basophils are involved in allergic reactions, eosinophils combat parasitic infections, and lymphocytes play a critical role in adaptive immunity. However, in terms of sheer numbers, neutrophils outnumber the other types of WBC.
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Wilma is using a portable suction unit at home, What is the amount of suction required by James using this unit?
- A. 2-5 mmHg
- B. 10-15 mmHg
- C. 5-10 mmHg
- D. 20-25 mmHg
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (10-15 mmHg) because this range is considered safe and effective for suctioning in most cases. Lower suction pressures (such as 2-5 mmHg) may not effectively clear secretions, while higher pressures (20-25 mmHg) can cause tissue damage. Choice C (5-10 mmHg) falls within the safe range but may not provide enough suction for effective clearance. Therefore, the optimal suction pressure for James using the portable suction unit at home is 10-15 mmHg.
Arthur, a 66-year old client for pneumonia has a temperature ranging from 39° to 40° C with periods of diaphoresis. Which of the following interventions by Nurse Carlos would be a priority?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy
- B. provide frequent linen changes
- C. provide fluid intake 3L/day
- D. maintain complete bed rest
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen therapy. This is the priority intervention because a high temperature and diaphoresis indicate potential respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy can help improve oxygenation and support respiratory function. Providing frequent linen changes (B) is important for hygiene but not the priority. Fluid intake (C) is essential but not as urgent as addressing respiratory distress. Maintaining complete bed rest (D) may be necessary but addressing oxygenation takes precedence in this case.
The client with epilepsy is taking the prescribed dose of phenytoin (Dilantin) to control seizures. Results of a phenytoin blood level study reveal a level of 35 mcg/ml. Which of the following symptoms would be expected as a result of this laboratory result?
- A. Nystagmus
- B. No symptoms, because this is normal
- C. Tachycardia therapeutic level
- D. Slurred speech
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nystagmus. A phenytoin blood level of 35 mcg/ml is above the therapeutic range (usually 10-20 mcg/ml). Excessive levels can lead to symptoms such as nystagmus, which is an involuntary eye movement commonly seen with phenytoin toxicity. Nystagmus is a known side effect of phenytoin overdose. Choices B and C are incorrect because a level of 35 mcg/ml is not within the normal therapeutic range, so symptoms would be expected. Choice D, Slurred speech, is not typically associated with phenytoin toxicity.
Which of the ff should qualify as an abnormal result in a Romberg test?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Swaying, losing balance, or arm drifting
- C. Sneezing and wheezing
- D. Excessive cerumen in the outer ear
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. In a Romberg test, the patient stands with feet together and eyes closed to assess proprioception.
2. Swaying, losing balance, or arm drifting indicates impaired proprioception, suggesting a positive Romberg sign, which is abnormal.
3. Hypotension (choice A) is not directly related to the Romberg test.
4. Sneezing and wheezing (choice C) are unrelated to the test.
5. Excessive cerumen in the outer ear (choice D) does not affect proprioception.
Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly relates to impaired proprioception, which is abnormal in a Romberg test. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are unrelated to the purpose of the test.
A nurse needs to assess a client who is undergoing urinary diversion. Which of the ff assessment is essential for the client?
- A. The client’s knowledge about the effects of the surgery on his sexual function
- B. The clients medical history of allergy to iodine or seafood
- C. The clients knowledge about the effects of the surgery on his nervous control
- D. The clients occupational and environmental health hazards
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client's medical history of allergy to iodine or seafood is crucial for urinary diversion assessment to prevent potential adverse reactions during procedures involving contrast media or seafood-based medications. It is essential to ensure the client's safety and avoid any allergic reactions.
Choice A is incorrect because assessing sexual function is not directly related to urinary diversion assessment. Choice C is also incorrect as urinary diversion does not typically affect nervous control. Choice D is irrelevant to the assessment of a client undergoing urinary diversion.