Nokea
Which of the following is wrong concerning Philadelphia chromosome:
- A. shortening of long arm of chromosome 22
- B. Philadelphia:-ve cases have bad prognosis
- C. diagnostic of CML
- D. found in lymphocytes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, as the Philadelphia chromosome is typically found in myeloid cells, not lymphocytes. This is because the Philadelphia chromosome results from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, leading to the formation of the BCR-ABL fusion gene, which is associated with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML). Choice A is correct as the Philadelphia chromosome results from the shortening of the long arm of chromosome 22. Choice B is incorrect as Philadelphia positivity in CML patients is associated with a worse prognosis. Choice C is correct as the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome is a diagnostic hallmark of CML.
You may also like to solve these questions
A patient with a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is being treated with induction therapy on the oncology unit. What nursing action should be prioritized in the patient's care plan?
- A. Protective isolation and vigilant use of standard precautions
- B. Provision of a high-calorie, low-texture diet and appropriate oral hygiene
- C. Including the family in planning the patient's activities of daily living
- D. Monitoring and treating the patient's pain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protective isolation and vigilant use of standard precautions. This is the priority because patients with AML are at high risk for infections due to compromised immune systems. Isolation and strict infection control measures help prevent exposure to pathogens. B is incorrect as the main priority is infection prevention, not diet. C is incorrect as involving the family is important but not the priority. D is incorrect as pain monitoring is important but not the priority in this case.
Which of the following is associated with normocytic normochromic anaemia?
- A. Iron deficiency
- B. Primaquine
- C. Pregnancy
- D. Sickle cell disease
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Normocytic normochromic anemia is characterized by normal-sized red blood cells with normal hemoglobin content. Pregnancy is associated with increased blood volume and physiological hemodilution, leading to normocytic normochromic anemia. Iron deficiency (choice A) typically presents as microcytic hypochromic anemia. Primaquine (choice B) is associated with hemolytic anemia. Sickle cell disease (choice D) is characterized by sickle-shaped red blood cells and is associated with hemolytic anemia, making it different from normocytic normochromic anemia.
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking filgrastim to treat neutropenia. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Dusky nail beds
- B. Petechiae
- C. Enlarged spleen
- D. Swollen calf
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct:
1. Filgrastim stimulates the production of neutrophils.
2. An enlarged spleen can indicate an increase in neutrophils.
3. Therefore, assessing the client for an enlarged spleen is crucial to monitor the drug's effectiveness and potential adverse effects.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Dusky nail beds - Not directly related to filgrastim or neutropenia.
B: Petechiae - Typically associated with low platelet count, not neutrophil increase.
D: Swollen calf - Unlikely to be a direct adverse effect of filgrastim for neutropenia.
Which of the following characteristics are similar with respect to Factor VIII and von Willebrand factor (vWF)?
- A. Both are made in endothelial cells and megakaryocytes.
- B. Both are activated by thrombin.
- C. They are present in normal to high relative amounts in newborns.
- D. They are stored in Weibel-Palade bodies in endothelial cells.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Factor VIII and vWF are present in normal to high relative amounts in newborns due to the physiological adaptation to the low levels at birth.
2. Both Factor VIII and vWF play crucial roles in the coagulation cascade, but their levels decrease after birth.
3. The other choices are incorrect because:
- A: Factor VIII is primarily made in endothelial cells and vWF is made in endothelial cells and platelets, not megakaryocytes.
- B: Thrombin activates Factor VIII but not vWF, which is activated by shear stress.
- D: Factor VIII is stored in Weibel-Palade bodies, but vWF is stored in platelets and endothelial cells, not in the Weibel-Palade bodies.
A 16-year-old patient with a left-side pelvic osteosarcoma is taking extended release oxycodone twice daily as well as immediate release oxycodone for breakthrough pain approximately 2 or 3 times per day. She describes her pain as burning, tingling, and shooting in her left leg. Her pain worsens with hot showers. Her most recent EKG has a QTc of 495. What would be the best strategy to manage her pain?
- A. Switch from long-acting oxycodone to methadone.
- B. Recommend more frequent use of her immediate release oxycodone.
- C. Add amitriptyline daily. Start low and titrate upward on dosage.
- D. Add gabapentin three times daily. Start low and titrate upward on dose.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The patient's pain is described as burning, tingling, and shooting in her left leg, which suggests neuropathic pain.
Step 2: The pain worsens with hot showers, indicating sensitivity to temperature changes, a common feature of neuropathic pain.
Step 3: Gabapentin is a first-line medication for neuropathic pain, as it stabilizes nerve cells and reduces abnormal pain signaling.
Step 4: Starting low and titrating upward on gabapentin dose helps minimize side effects and optimize pain relief.
Step 5: Methadone (Choice A) is not the best option for neuropathic pain. Increasing immediate release oxycodone (Choice B) may lead to opioid tolerance. Amitriptyline (Choice C) may help neuropathic pain but is not as specific as gabapentin.