Nokea
Which of the following isoenzymes is elevated in a client who has had a myocardial infarction?
- A. CPK-BB
- B. CPK-MM
- C. CPK-MB
- D. CPK-MI
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: CPK-MB is the correct answer as it is elevated in clients who have had a myocardial infarction. CPK-BB is elevated in clients with brain damage, and CPK-MM is elevated in clients with skeletal muscle damage. CPK-MI, mentioned in the rationale, does not exist, making it an incorrect choice.
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What is the term for the tendency of a drug to combine with its receptor?
- A. potency
- B. efficacy
- C. kinetics
- D. affinity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'affinity.' Affinity refers to the close relationship or mutual attraction between a drug and its receptor, indicating the strength of the drug-receptor bonding. Potency (Choice A) is related to the dose of a drug needed to produce a specific effect. Efficacy (Choice B) refers to a drug's ability to generate the desired effect. Kinetics (Choice C) deals with forces affecting the motion of material bodies or changes in a system, which is not directly associated with the bonding between a drug and its receptor.
When observing a dressing change by a graduate nurse on a Stage III pressure ulcer to the greater trochanter by the staff nurse, a need for further teaching is indicated after the following observation by the nurse:
- A. The new graduate nurse irrigates the pressure ulcer with 50cc of NS.
- B. The new graduate irrigates the pressure ulcer with half-strength hydrogen peroxide.
- C. The new graduate packs the wound with sterile kerlix soaked in NS.
- D. The new graduate applies a Duoderm dressing over the wound after cleansing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that the new graduate irrigates the pressure ulcer with half-strength hydrogen peroxide. Pressure ulcers should not be cleaned with substances that are cytotoxic, such as hydrogen peroxide or betadine. This can cause further damage to the wound and delay the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because irrigating the pressure ulcer with normal saline is an appropriate practice. Choice C is incorrect because packing the wound with sterile kerlix soaked in normal saline is also an appropriate step. Choice D is incorrect because applying a Duoderm dressing after cleansing is a standard procedure in wound care.
To ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort when using a rigid splint, what should be done?
- A. Place the client on a stretcher before splinting.
- B. Place the client on a long spine board before splinting.
- C. Pad the spaces between the body part and the splint.
- D. Ensure that the splint conforms to the body curves.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct. When using a rigid splint, it is essential to pad the spaces between the body part and the splint to ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort. This padding helps prevent pressure points and ensures a proper fit of the splint without causing discomfort. Placing the client on a stretcher or a long spine board before splinting (choices A and B) may be necessary for transportation but does not directly relate to the proper use of a rigid splint. Ensuring that the splint conforms to the body curves (choice D) is important but not as crucial as padding the spaces to prevent discomfort and ensure proper immobilization.
When a client with a major burn experiences body image disturbance, which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention classification?
- A. grief work facilitation
- B. vital signs monitoring
- C. medication administration: skin
- D. anxiety reduction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'grief work facilitation' because it is a nursing intervention classification specifically designed to address disturbed body image in burn clients. The expected outcome of this intervention is grief resolution, which can help the client cope with the body image changes resulting from the burn.
Choice B, 'vital signs monitoring,' is not the appropriate intervention for body image disturbance in burn clients. Vital signs monitoring is typically used for assessing physiological parameters like blood pressure, pulse rate, and temperature.
Choice C, 'medication administration: skin,' is more focused on treating skin-related issues rather than addressing body image disturbance. It involves the administration of medications to promote skin healing and integrity.
Choice D, 'anxiety reduction,' is aimed at managing anxiety in clients with major burns and is not specifically targeted at addressing body image disturbance. While anxiety may be a common emotional response to burns, the most appropriate intervention for body image disturbance in this scenario is 'grief work facilitation.'
The nurse has completed client teaching about introducing solid foods to an infant. To evaluate teaching, the nurse asks the mother to identify an appropriate first solid food. Which of the following is an appropriate response?
- A. pureed canned squash
- B. pureed apples
- C. yogurt
- D. infant rice cereal
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is infant rice cereal. Single-grain infant cereals are recommended as the first solid food because they are easily digestible and have added iron content. Choice C, yogurt, is incorrect because yogurt is a milk product and should be delayed until the child is 12 months old due to the risk of milk allergy. Choices A and B are incorrect because fruits and vegetables are typically introduced after cereals to help the infant get accustomed to solid foods gradually.