Which of the following lab results is most indicative of dehydration?
- A. Low sodium levels.
- B. Elevated creatinine levels.
- C. Low potassium levels.
- D. High blood glucose levels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elevated creatinine levels are indicative of dehydration because when the body is dehydrated, the kidneys concentrate urine to preserve fluid, leading to higher levels of creatinine. Low sodium levels (Choice A) can be seen in conditions like hyponatremia but are not specific to dehydration. Low potassium levels (Choice C) are more commonly associated with conditions like hypokalemia. High blood glucose levels (Choice D) are typically seen in diabetes and are not specific indicators of dehydration.
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A client with chronic renal failure is on a low-protein diet. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse when the client asks why this diet is necessary?
- A. It reduces the workload on your kidneys.
- B. It helps prevent the buildup of waste products.
- C. It helps maintain electrolyte balance in your body.
- D. It helps prevent dehydration.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A low-protein diet is necessary for clients with chronic renal failure because it helps prevent the buildup of waste products, such as urea, in the body. Excess protein can lead to the accumulation of waste products that the compromised kidneys may not effectively filter out, further burdening the already impaired renal function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary reason for a low-protein diet in chronic renal failure is to reduce the workload on the kidneys by minimizing the production of waste products that can exacerbate the condition, not specifically to reduce kidney workload, maintain electrolyte balance, or prevent dehydration.
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an IV infusion of normal saline and notices that the infusion is not flowing. The insertion site is not inflamed or swollen. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check the tubing for kinks or obstructions.
- B. Increase the flow rate to improve the infusion.
- C. Reinsert the IV catheter in another vein.
- D. Call the physician for further instructions.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when an IV infusion is not flowing despite a normal insertion site is to check the tubing for kinks or obstructions. This step is crucial to ensure that there are no preventable issues impeding the flow of the IV solution. Increasing the flow rate without addressing potential obstructions could lead to complications such as infiltration. Reinserting the IV catheter in another vein should only be considered after ruling out tubing issues. Calling the physician for further instructions is not necessary at this stage as troubleshooting the tubing should be the initial intervention.
What is the most common symptom of hypoglycemia that the nurse should teach the diabetic client to recognize?
- A. Nervousness
- B. Anorexia
- C. Kussmaul's respirations
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nervousness is the most common symptom of hypoglycemia. It is often accompanied by other signs such as weakness, perspiration, confusion, and palpitations. Anorexia (lack of appetite) is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia; it is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia. Kussmaul's respirations are a deep and labored breathing pattern seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, not hypoglycemia. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia; tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia due to the release of catecholamines in response to low blood sugar.
Which of the following is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea?
- A. Supine position.
- B. Fowler's position.
- C. Trendelenburg position.
- D. Lateral recumbent position.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fowler's position is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea. This position involves sitting the patient upright with the head of the bed elevated between 45-60 degrees. Fowler's position helps improve breathing in patients with dyspnea by promoting lung expansion, aiding in better oxygenation, and reducing the work of breathing. The supine position (Choice A) may worsen dyspnea by limiting lung expansion. The Trendelenburg position (Choice C) with the feet elevated and the head down is not recommended for dyspnea as it can increase pressure on the chest and compromise breathing. The lateral recumbent position (Choice D) is not ideal for dyspnea as it does not provide optimal lung expansion and may not alleviate breathing difficulty.
The healthcare provider is unable to palpate the client's left pedal pulses. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take next?
- A. Auscultate the pulses with a stethoscope.
- B. Call the physician.
- C. Use a Doppler ultrasound device.
- D. Inspect the lower left extremity.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When pedal pulses are not palpable, using a Doppler ultrasound device is the appropriate next step to locate the pulse. Auscultating the pulses with a stethoscope (Choice A) is used for assessing blood flow in arteries above the clavicle, not for pedal pulses. Calling the physician (Choice B) may be necessary at a later stage, but initially, using a Doppler ultrasound device to locate the pulse is more appropriate. Inspecting the lower left extremity (Choice D) can provide visual information but will not help in locating the pedal pulses, making it a less suitable option.