Nokea
Which of the following may occur in Expressive Language Disorder?
- A. Limited amount of speech
- B. Difficulty learning new words
- C. Difficulty finding the right word
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Expressive Language Disorder: A specific learning disability in which scores on tests of expressive language development are substantially below those for chronological age, intelligence, and educational level.
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A patient has acute anxiety related to an automobile accident 2 hours ago. The patient needs teaching about drugs from which group?
- A. Tricyclic antidepressants
- B. Antipsychotic drugs
- C. Antimanic drugs
- D. Benzodiazepines
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Benzodiazepines. Benzodiazepines are commonly used in the treatment of acute anxiety due to their rapid onset of action and effectiveness in managing symptoms such as panic attacks. They work by enhancing the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA, leading to sedative and anxiolytic effects. Tricyclic antidepressants (Choice A) are not the first-line treatment for acute anxiety. Antipsychotic drugs (Choice B) are primarily used for conditions such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder, not acute anxiety. Antimanic drugs (Choice C) are used to manage symptoms of mania in conditions like bipolar disorder, not acute anxiety. Therefore, the correct choice is Benzodiazepines due to their rapid efficacy and established role in managing acute anxiety.
A nurse assesses an elderly patient. The nurse should complete the Geriatric Depression Scale if the patient answers which question affirmatively.
- A. Would you say your mood is often sad?'
- B. Are you having any trouble with your memory?'
- C. Have you noticed an increase in your alcohol use?'
- D. Do you often experience moderate to severe pain?'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Feeling low may be a symptom of depression. Low moods occurring with regularity should signal the need for further assessment for other symptoms of depression. The other options do not focus on mood.
A patient who has been taking fluoxetine (Prozac) 60 mg daily for the past 6 months tells the nurse at the medication follow-up clinic that he is considering stopping the Prozac. He states his mood is fine, and now that he is living normally, his wife is concerned that he has no sex drive. Which response would be best?
- A. Without the medicine the depression will likely return; you and your wife will need to adjust to the sexual side effects.
- B. If we switch your medication time to the morning, the sexual side effects will be worn off in time for evening sexual activity.
- C. The problem is not likely due to the medicine. Often the depression itself, even after it improves, continues to dampen sex drive.
- D. Without an antidepressant, the depression is more likely to reoccur, but there are other medications that do not interfere so much with sex.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer D is correct:
1. Correctly acknowledges the patient's concern about sexual side effects.
2. Highlights the importance of managing depression to prevent recurrence.
3. Offers a solution by mentioning alternative medications with less impact on sex drive.
4. Empowers the patient by providing information and options for treatment.
5. Addresses both the patient's current situation and long-term mental health needs.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Overlooks the patient's valid concern about sexual side effects and lacks a proactive solution.
B: Focuses on timing of medication without addressing the underlying issue of sexual side effects.
C: Dismisses the patient's concern and fails to provide a solution or alternative options.
A frequent finding in clients with Paraphiliac sexual disorders is that they have:
- A. Other covert or overt emotional
- B. Gonadal and pituitary hormone deficiencies
- C. An inadequate physical development of the sex organs
- D. A poor adjustment due to association with society's fringe groups
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clients with paraphilic disorders often have coexisting emotional disorders, which may contribute to or result from their condition.
A patient with borderline personality disorder cut her wrists while out on a pass. For future planning, staff should consider that the reason for the self-mutilation is probably related to:
- A. an inherited disorder that manifests itself as an incapacity to tolerate stress.
- B. fear of abandonment associated with relationships or increasing autonomy.
- C. use of projective identification and splitting to bring anxiety to manageable levels.
- D. a constitutional inability to regulate affect, predisposing to psychic disorganization.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by fear of abandonment.
2. Self-mutilation can be a maladaptive coping mechanism to alleviate this fear.
3. The behavior is often triggered by perceived threats to relationships or autonomy.
4. Therefore, considering fear of abandonment in future planning is crucial.
Summary of other choices:
A: Inherited disorder is not the primary reason for self-mutilation in borderline personality disorder.
C: Projective identification and splitting are defense mechanisms, not primary reasons for self-mutilation.
D: Constitutional inability to regulate affect may contribute, but fear of abandonment is more central in borderline personality disorder.