Nokea
Which of the following measures the risk of dying from causes related to pregnancy, childbirth, and puerperium?
- A. maternal mortality
- B. neonatal death rate
- C. fetal death rate
- D. infant mortality rate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, maternal mortality. Maternal mortality specifically measures the risk of dying from pregnancy-related causes. Neonatal death rate, fetal death rate, and infant mortality rate focus on different populations and timeframes. Neonatal death rate refers to deaths within the first 28 days of life, fetal death rate measures stillbirths, and infant mortality rate includes deaths of infants under one year of age. Therefore, A is the most appropriate measure for assessing the risk of dying from causes related to pregnancy, childbirth, and puerperium.
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The new graduate nurse interviews for a position in a nursing department of a large health care agency, described by the interviewer as having shared governance. Which of these statements best illustrates the shared governance model?
- A. An appointed board oversees any administrative decisions
- B. Nursing departments share responsibility for client outcomes
- C. Staff groups are appointed to discuss nursing practice and client education issues
- D. Non-nurse managers supervise nursing staff in groups of units
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because shared governance involves nurses and other staff sharing responsibility for decisions related to patient care and outcomes, promoting collaborative practice and shared accountability. Choice A is incorrect as shared governance includes active participation of frontline staff, not just an appointed board. Choice C is incorrect because shared governance goes beyond just discussing issues to actively sharing responsibility for decision-making. Choice D is incorrect as shared governance encourages nurses to have a significant role in decision-making rather than being supervised by non-nurse managers.
A client was re-admitted to the hospital following a recent skull fracture. Which finding requires the nurse's immediate attention?
- A. Lethargy
- B. Agitation
- C. Ataxia
- D. Hearing loss
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lethargy is a critical finding that requires the nurse's immediate attention when a client with a recent skull fracture is readmitted to the hospital. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or other serious complications such as hemorrhage or infection. Addressing lethargy promptly is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Agitation, ataxia, and hearing loss are important to assess but do not signify the same level of urgency as lethargy in this context.
A client comes into the community health center upset and crying stating, "I will die of cancer now that I have this disease." And then the client hands the nurse a paper with one word written on it: 'Pheochromocytoma.' Which response should the nurse state initially?
- A. 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant). But they may be associated with cancerous tumors in other endocrine glands such as the thyroid (medullary carcinoma of the thyroid).'
- B. 'This problem is diagnosed by blood and urine tests that reveal elevated levels of adrenaline and noradrenaline.'
- C. 'Computerized tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are used to detect an adrenal tumor.'
- D. 'You probably have had episodes of sweating, heart pounding, and headaches.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial response for the nurse to provide in this situation is to offer reassurance. Stating that 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant)' helps to alleviate the client's anxiety and fear of having cancer. This response also establishes a foundation for further discussion about the condition, allowing the nurse to address the client's concerns and provide accurate information. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses solely on the diagnostic tests for pheochromocytoma but does not address the client's emotional distress. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses imaging modalities without directly addressing the client's concerns. Choice D is also incorrect as it assumes symptoms without first addressing the client's emotional state and fear of cancer.
The nurse is assessing a client with portal hypertension. Which of the following findings would the nurse expect?
- A. Expiratory wheezes
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Ascites
- D. Dilated pupils
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ascites is a common finding in clients with portal hypertension. Portal hypertension results in increased pressure in the portal vein, leading to the development of ascites, which is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity. Expiratory wheezes (Choice A) are associated with respiratory conditions. Blurred vision (Choice B) is more commonly linked to eye disorders or neurological issues. Dilated pupils (Choice D) can be related to neurological conditions or drug effects, but not specifically to portal hypertension.
What is the main focus of secondary prevention?
- A. Early detection and treatment
- B. Rehabilitation
- C. Health promotion
- D. Palliative care
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The main focus of secondary prevention is early detection and treatment of disease. This approach aims to identify health conditions in their early stages when they are easier to treat or manage effectively. Choice B, rehabilitation, is more aligned with restoring function after an illness or injury has occurred. Choice C, health promotion, concentrates on educating and empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to prevent the onset of diseases. Choice D, palliative care, is focused on providing comfort and improving the quality of life for individuals with serious illnesses or at the end of life, rather than on early detection and treatment.