Nokea
Which of the following measures will not help correct the patient’s condition
- A. Offer large amount of oral fluid intake to replace fluid lost
- B. Give enteral or parenteral fluid
- C. Frequent oral care
- D. Give small volumes of fluid at frequent interval
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Providing oral care does not directly address fluid balance or hydration status.
2. Oral care focuses on maintaining oral hygiene and preventing infections.
3. Choices A, B, and D all involve fluid intake to address dehydration.
4. Offering large amounts of fluid, enteral or parenteral fluids, and small volumes at frequent intervals all aim to correct the patient's condition by replenishing lost fluids.
Summary:
Choice C is incorrect because oral care does not directly address the patient's dehydration. Choices A, B, and D are better options as they focus on fluid replacement to correct the patient's condition.
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A nurse has been examining the vital signs of the client for the past 2 days. On a particular day, she observe a sudden change in the vital signs of the client. Which of the ff steps should the nurse take immediately?
- A. Inform the physician
- B. Change the environmental settings of the client
- C. Alter the diet intake of the client
- D. Decrease the physical activity of the client if any.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inform the physician. This is essential because a sudden change in vital signs may indicate a critical condition that requires immediate medical attention. The physician needs to be informed promptly to assess the situation and provide appropriate interventions.
Summary:
- B: Changing environmental settings is not a priority when dealing with sudden changes in vital signs.
- C: Altering diet intake is not an immediate response to sudden changes in vital signs.
- D: Decreasing physical activity may not address the underlying cause of the sudden change in vital signs.
When a client is receiving blood which of the ff nursing actions is essential to determine if chilling is the result of an emerging complication or of infusing cold blood?
- A. Monitoring the client’s temperature before, during, and after transfusion
- B. Documenting the client’s temp after the transfusion
- C. Documenting the temp of the blood before the transfusion
- D. Comparing the client’s temp with the temp of the blood
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because monitoring the client's temperature before, during, and after the transfusion allows the nurse to identify any changes or trends that may indicate a complication related to the blood transfusion. This comprehensive monitoring helps differentiate between a normal body response to cold blood infusion and a potential adverse reaction.
Choice B is incorrect because documenting the client's temperature only after the transfusion may miss important changes during the process. Choice C is incorrect as the temperature of the blood before transfusion does not directly indicate the client's response to the chilled blood. Choice D is incorrect as comparing the client's temperature with the temperature of the blood alone does not provide a complete picture of the client's condition throughout the transfusion process.
A client with spinal cord injury at the level of T3 complains of a sudden severe headache and nasal congestion. The nurse observes that the client has a flushed skin with goose bumps. Which of the ff actions should the nurse first take?
- A. Raise the client’s head
- B. Place the client on a firm mattress
- C. Call the physician
- D. Administer an analgesic to relieve the pain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Call the physician. In this scenario, the sudden severe headache and nasal congestion along with flushed skin and goosebumps suggest autonomic dysreflexia, a medical emergency in spinal cord injury at or above T6. The nurse should immediately call the physician to address this potentially life-threatening situation. Raising the client's head (A) may worsen the condition, placing the client on a firm mattress (B) is not a priority, and administering an analgesic (D) without addressing the underlying cause could lead to further complications. The priority is to identify and address the cause of autonomic dysreflexia promptly.
A client with suspected lymphoma is scheduled for lymphangiography. The nurse should inform the client that this procedure may cause which harmless, temporary change?
- A. Purplish stools
- B. Redness of the upper part of the feet
- C. Bluish urine
- D. Coldness of the soles
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Redness of the upper part of the feet. During lymphangiography, a contrast dye is injected into the lymphatic vessels. This may cause temporary redness in the upper part of the feet due to the dye spreading throughout the lymphatic system. Purplish stools (A), bluish urine (C), and coldness of the soles (D) are not expected side effects of lymphangiography and do not have a direct correlation with the procedure.
A 48-year-old patient has been prescribed trihexyphenidyl for her Parkinson’s disease. Which adverse reaction to this drug can be close-related?
- A. Excessive salivation
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Dryness of mouth
- D. Constipation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Dryness of mouth
Rationale:
1. Trihexyphenidyl is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat Parkinson's disease.
2. Anticholinergic drugs inhibit the parasympathetic nervous system, leading to decreased secretions.
3. Dryness of mouth (xerostomia) is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications.
4. Excessive salivation, bradycardia, and constipation are not typically associated with anticholinergic drugs, making them incorrect choices.