Which of the following medication is not indicated for the treatment of muscle spasms?
- A. Baclofen (Lioresal)
- B. Tizanidine (Zanaflex)
- C. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
- D. Carisoprodol (Soma)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why A is correct:
1. Baclofen is a muscle relaxant primarily used for treating muscle spasticity, not muscle spasms.
2. Baclofen acts on GABA receptors in the spinal cord to reduce muscle hyperactivity.
3. Tizanidine, Cyclobenzaprine, and Carisoprodol are all indicated for the treatment of muscle spasms.
4. Tizanidine acts centrally to inhibit excitatory neurotransmitter release, Cyclobenzaprine is a muscle relaxant with sedative effects, and Carisoprodol is a centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant.
Summary: Baclofen is not indicated for the treatment of muscle spasms because it is primarily used for muscle spasticity. Tizanidine, Cyclobenzaprine, and Carisoprodol are more commonly prescribed for muscle spasms due to their mechanisms of action.
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The following information is recorded in the health history: "Patient denies chest pain, palpitations, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea." Which category does it belong to?
- A. Chief complaint
- B. Present illness
- C. Personal and social history
- D. Review of systems
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Review of systems. In this case, the information provided pertains to specific symptoms related to the cardiovascular system. The review of systems involves asking about symptoms in various body systems to identify any potential issues. This information helps in identifying any underlying health concerns that the patient may not have mentioned as their main complaint.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Chief complaint - This is the main reason for the patient's visit or primary concern, not a list of symptoms.
B: Present illness - Focuses on the details of the current medical issue, not a general review of symptoms.
C: Personal and social history - Pertains to the patient's lifestyle, habits, and social support, not specific symptoms related to body systems.
Where should the uterine fundus be palpable at 12 weeks?
- A. At the level of the umbilicus
- B. At the level of the symphysis pubis
- C. Midway between the symphysis and umbilicus
- D. Below the symphysis pubis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: At 12 weeks of gestation, the uterine fundus should be palpable at the level of the symphysis pubis. This is because the uterus rises approximately 1 cm above the symphysis pubis each week during the first trimester. By 12 weeks, it should be palpable at this level.
Choice A (At the level of the umbilicus) is incorrect because the fundus is not expected to reach the level of the umbilicus until around 20 weeks.
Choice C (Midway between the symphysis and umbilicus) is incorrect as this would typically occur around 16-18 weeks.
Choice D (Below the symphysis pubis) is also incorrect because by 12 weeks, the fundus should have risen above the symphysis pubis.
The addition of benzoyl peroxide to erythromycin for the topical treatment of acne:
- A. Improve the efficacy of erythromycin
- B. Decrease the risk of desquamation
- C. Decreases the risk of resistance to erythromycin
- D. Increases the time the patient can be exposed to sunlight
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct:
1. Benzoyl peroxide has antibacterial properties.
2. Combining benzoyl peroxide with erythromycin reduces bacterial resistance.
3. This combination therapy prevents the development of resistance to erythromycin.
4. Therefore, the risk of resistance to erythromycin is decreased.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect as benzoyl peroxide does not directly improve the efficacy of erythromycin.
- Choice B is incorrect as desquamation is not directly affected by the addition of benzoyl peroxide.
- Choice D is incorrect as there is no evidence to suggest that benzoyl peroxide increases the time a patient can be exposed to sunlight.
A 78-year-old woman with cardiovascular disease declines creating an advance directive. Which characteristic is necessary for a healthcare agent?
- A. Geographic proximity to the patient’s home
- B. Knows how the patient defines quality of life
- C. Is a member of the patient’s immediate family
- D. Has medical training or experience
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because knowing how the patient defines quality of life is crucial for making healthcare decisions aligned with the patient's values and preferences. This ensures the healthcare agent can advocate for the patient's wishes effectively. Geographic proximity (A) is not necessary as communication can be maintained remotely. Being a family member (C) may create biases, and medical training (D) is not essential for understanding the patient's values.
Which scientist is credited with the discovery of X-rays, and in what year did this discovery occur?
- A. Marie Curie in 1903
- B. Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen in 1895
- C. Thomas Edison in 1896
- D. Albert Einstein in 1905
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen in 1895. Roentgen discovered X-rays by accident while experimenting with cathode rays. He noticed a glow from a nearby screen even though it was covered, leading to the discovery of X-rays. Marie Curie is known for her work on radioactivity, not X-rays. Thomas Edison is famous for inventing the light bulb and phonograph, not X-rays. Albert Einstein is known for his work on the theory of relativity, not the discovery of X-rays.