Nokea
Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?
- A. Ceftriaxone
- B. Fluconazole
- C. Metronidazole
- D. Zidovudine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone. It is the recommended first-line treatment for gonorrhea due to increasing resistance to other antibiotics. Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that effectively treats gonorrhea. Fluconazole (B) is used for fungal infections, not bacterial. Metronidazole (C) is used for anaerobic bacterial infections like bacterial vaginosis, not gonorrhea. Zidovudine (D) is used to treat HIV, not gonorrhea. Therefore, A is the correct choice for treating gonorrhea effectively.
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A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)
- A. Decreased fetal movement
- B. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
- C. Postmaturity
- D. All of the Above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of the Above.
1. Decreased fetal movement indicates fetal distress, necessitating CST.
2. IUGR implies potential placental insufficiency, requiring CST evaluation.
3. Postmaturity increases risk of placental insufficiency, warranting CST.
Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly indicate the need for CST in a pregnant client.
A client who is postpartum is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. For which of the following clinical manifestations should the client be instructed to monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Persistent abdominal striae
- B. Temperature 37.8° C (100.2° F)
- C. Unilateral breast pain
- D. Brownish-red discharge on day 5
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Unilateral breast pain in a postpartum client can indicate mastitis, a bacterial infection of the breast tissue. This requires prompt medical attention to prevent complications like abscess formation.
Other Choices:
A: Abdominal striae are normal after pregnancy and don't require immediate intervention.
B: Mild temperature elevation is common postpartum and doesn't necessarily indicate infection.
D: Brownish-red discharge on day 5 is typically normal lochia and not concerning unless foul-smelling or accompanied by fever.
When providing care for a client in preterm labor at 32 weeks of gestation, which medication should the nurse anticipate the provider will prescribe to hasten fetal lung maturity?
- A. Calcium gluconate
- B. Indomethacin
- C. Nifedipine
- D. Betamethasone
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that promotes fetal lung maturity by stimulating the production of surfactant, essential for lung function.
Step 2: At 32 weeks, the fetus may benefit from accelerated lung development to reduce respiratory distress.
Step 3: Calcium gluconate is used for hypocalcemia, not for fetal lung maturity.
Step 4: Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to delay preterm labor, not for lung maturity.
Step 5: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker to prevent preterm labor, not for fetal lung maturity.
A client who is at 22 weeks gestation is being educated by a nurse about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. You will lie on your right side during the procedure.
- B. You should not eat anything for 24 hours before the procedure.
- C. You should empty your bladder before the procedure.
- D. The test is performed to determine gestational age.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: You should empty your bladder before the procedure. This is important because a full bladder can obstruct the visualization of the fetus during amniocentesis. By emptying the bladder, the uterus is better positioned for the procedure, making it safer and more effective.
Explanation:
1. A (You will lie on your right side during the procedure) is incorrect because the position during amniocentesis is typically on the back or slightly tilted to the left.
2. B (You should not eat anything for 24 hours before the procedure) is incorrect as fasting is not required for amniocentesis.
3. D (The test is performed to determine gestational age) is incorrect as amniocentesis is used to detect genetic abnormalities, not gestational age.
During a nonstress test for a pregnant client, a nurse uses an acoustic vibration device. The client inquires about its purpose. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. It is used to stimulate uterine contractions.
- B. It will decrease the incidence of uterine contractions.
- C. It lulls the fetus to sleep.
- D. It awakens a sleeping fetus.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the acoustic vibration device is used during a nonstress test to wake up a sleeping fetus, ensuring that the baby is active and responsive during the test. This helps to assess the baby's well-being and monitor its heart rate patterns. Choice A is incorrect as the device does not stimulate uterine contractions. Choice B is incorrect as it does not decrease the incidence of contractions. Choice C is incorrect as the device does not lull the fetus to sleep, but rather ensures the fetus is awake and moving during the test.