Nokea
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is breastfeeding and experiencing engorgement. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?
- A. Apply warm compresses on the breasts before feedings
- B. Allow the infant to nurse on one breast per feeding.
- C. Take aspirin to reduce pain and swelling.
- D. Wear a tight-fitting underwire bra.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Apply warm compresses on the breasts before feedings. Warm compresses help to promote milk flow and relieve engorgement by increasing blood flow to the area. This can make it easier for the baby to latch and feed effectively. It is important to address engorgement promptly to prevent complications such as blocked ducts or mastitis.
Option B is incorrect because allowing the infant to nurse on one breast per feeding may not fully empty the breasts, leading to further engorgement. Option C is incorrect because aspirin is not recommended during breastfeeding due to potential risks to the infant. Option D is incorrect because wearing a tight-fitting underwire bra can constrict the breasts and worsen engorgement.
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A nurse on an antepartum unit is caring for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. A client who has gestational diabetes and a fasting blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL (less than 95 mg/dL).
- B. A client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and reports epigastric pain.
- C. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has an Hgb of 10.4 g/dL (11 to 16 g/dL).
- D. A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and reports urinary frequency and dysuria.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because epigastric pain in a pregnant client at 34 weeks of gestation could indicate a serious condition such as preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. It requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby. The other clients have less urgent issues that can be managed with ongoing monitoring and interventions. A: Gestational diabetes with a slightly elevated blood glucose level can be managed with adjustments to diet and medication. C: Mildly low hemoglobin levels can be addressed with iron supplementation and monitoring. D: Urinary frequency and dysuria in a client at 39 weeks of gestation are common symptoms of late-stage pregnancy and do not indicate a critical issue.
A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and is receiving IV fluid replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 105/64 mm Hg.
- B. Heart rate 98/min.
- C. Urine output of 280 mL within 8 hr.
- D. Urine negative for ketones.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urine output of 280 mL within 8 hr. In hyperemesis gravidarum, decreased urine output can indicate dehydration, a serious complication. The nurse should report this finding to the provider to ensure prompt intervention. A: Blood pressure 105/64 mm Hg is within normal range for pregnancy. B: Heart rate 98/min may be slightly elevated but not concerning. D: Urine negative for ketones is expected with IV fluid replacement.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?Select the 3 findings that should be reported.
- A. Uterine contractions
- B. Fetal heart rate
- C. Gestational age
- D. Vaginal examination
- E. Maternal blood pressure
Correct Answer: A,B,D
Rationale: The nurse should report uterine contractions (A) to monitor for preterm labor, fetal heart rate (B) to assess fetal well-being, and vaginal examination (D) to evaluate cervical changes. Gestational age (C) is typically known and doesn't require immediate reporting. Maternal blood pressure (E) is important but not a priority in this context.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. They are experiencing contractions 2 to 3 min apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that their cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The nurse should identify that the client is in which of the following phases of labor?
- A. Passive descent
- B. Active
- C. Early
- D. Descent
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Active phase. At 9 cm dilation, the client is in the active phase of the first stage of labor. This phase is characterized by more rapid cervical dilation (6-10 cm) and increased contractions with shorter intervals. The client's symptoms align with this phase as they are experiencing strong contractions close together, along with increased rectal pressure indicating descent of the fetus. Other choices are incorrect as: A (Passive descent) occurs during the second stage of labor; C (Early phase) is typically before 6 cm dilation; D (Descent) is not a recognized phase of labor.
A nurse is assessing a newborn following a circumcision. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the newborn is experiencing pain?
- A. Decreased heart rate.
- B. Chin quivering.
- C. Pinpoint pupils.
- D. Slowed respirations.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chin quivering. Pain assessment in newborns can be challenging due to their limited ability to communicate. Chin quivering is a nonverbal sign of pain in newborns. It indicates stress and discomfort. Decreased heart rate, pinpoint pupils, and slowed respirations are not reliable indicators of pain in newborns and may be attributed to other factors. Therefore, the nurse should identify chin quivering as a significant sign of pain in this scenario.