Nokea
Which of the following organs of the digestive system has a primary function of absorption?
- A. stomach
- B. pancreas
- C. small intestine
- D. gallbladder
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The small intestine is the correct answer. It is the primary organ responsible for absorption in the digestive system. The stomach's primary function is to break down food through mechanical and chemical digestion. The pancreas produces digestive enzymes to aid in the breakdown of food. The gallbladder stores bile produced by the liver, which helps in the digestion of fats. However, neither the stomach, pancreas, nor gallbladder play the primary role of absorption in the digestive process, making them incorrect choices.
You may also like to solve these questions
What are the major electrolytes in the extracellular fluid?
- A. potassium and chloride
- B. potassium and phosphate
- C. sodium and chloride
- D. sodium and phosphate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is sodium and chloride. These two electrolytes are the major components of extracellular fluid. Potassium and phosphate (Choice B) are not the major electrolytes in the extracellular fluid. Potassium is primarily an intracellular ion, and phosphate is more abundant in the intracellular fluid and bones. Sodium and phosphate (Choice D) are also not the major electrolytes in the extracellular fluid. Chloride plays a crucial role in maintaining electrolyte balance and is predominantly found in extracellular fluid alongside sodium.
What is a chemical reaction between drugs before their administration or absorption known as?
- A. a drug incompatibility
- B. a side effect
- C. an adverse event
- D. an allergic response
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A chemical reaction between drugs before their administration or absorption is termed a drug incompatibility. This phenomenon commonly happens when drug solutions are mixed before intravenous administration, but it can also occur with orally administered drugs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because side effects, adverse events, and allergic responses occur after the administration and absorption of drugs, not prior to it.
When administering intravenous electrolyte solution, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?
- A. Infuse hypertonic solutions cautiously.
- B. Mix no more than 60 mEq of potassium per liter of fluid.
- C. Prevent infiltration of calcium, which causes tissue necrosis and sloughing.
- D. Monitor the client's digitalis dosage for potential adjustments due to IV calcium administration.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When administering intravenous electrolyte solutions, it is crucial to prevent infiltration of calcium to avoid tissue necrosis and sloughing. Hypertonic solutions should be infused cautiously (Choice A) to prevent adverse effects. The correct amount of potassium to be mixed in a liter of fluid is no more than 60 mEq, making Choice B incorrect. While monitoring the client's digitalis dosage for potential adjustments due to IV calcium administration is important, the statement suggesting an increased dosage is incorrect as IV calcium diminishes digitalis's action, making Choice D incorrect.
Which of the following should be included in a diet rich in iron?
- A. peaches, eggs, beef
- B. cereals, kale, cheese
- C. red beans, enriched breads, squash
- D. legumes, green beans, eggs
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is peaches, eggs, beef. These are good sources of heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to nonheme iron. Heme iron is mainly found in animal-based foods like meat, poultry, and fish. Peaches, eggs, and beef are rich in iron and can help prevent iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not include significant sources of heme iron. Cereals, kale, cheese, red beans, enriched breads, squash, legumes, and green beans are sources of nonheme iron, which is not as efficiently absorbed by the body as heme iron. It is important to include heme iron sources in the diet for optimal iron absorption.
A client had a Caesarean delivery and is postpartum day 1. She asks for pain medication when the nurse enters the room to do her shift assessment. The client states that her pain level is an 8 on a scale of 1 to 10. What should be the nurse's priority of care?
- A. Give the pain medication and return in an hour for further assessment to allow time for the medication to work.
- B. Complete the postpartum assessment and then give the client pain medication.
- C. Give the pain medication first, do a quick assessment while administering the medication to ensure the pain is not caused by a complication, and return for the full assessment after the client's pain has subsided.
- D. Instruct the patient to do relaxation exercises to relieve her discomfort.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pain management is a priority, so the nurse should immediately provide pain medication. However, the nurse should conduct a quick assessment while administering the medication to ensure that a complication, such as hemorrhage, hasn't caused the increased pain. A complete assessment can wait until the pain subsides. Controlling pain will enable the client to move, eliminating other potential complications of delivery and facilitating bonding with the infant. Relaxation techniques can act as an adjunct therapy but by themselves are not usually effective for pain management during the early post-Caesarean period.