Nokea
Which of the following pairs of bases is present in the rungs of the ladder-like structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?
- A. Cytosine with guanine.
- B. Rhodamine with biotin.
- C. Diaminopurine with ribozyme.
- D. Serine with tyrosine.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cytosine with guanine. In the DNA double helix, cytosine always pairs with guanine forming a base pair, and adenine pairs with thymine. These complementary base pairs form the rungs of the ladder-like structure of DNA. Choice B, Rhodamine with biotin, is incorrect as they are not base pairs found in DNA. Choice D, Serine with tyrosine, is incorrect as they are amino acids, not DNA bases. Choice C, Diaminopurine with ribozyme, is also incorrect as ribozyme is an enzyme, not a base, and diaminopurine is not one of the standard bases found in DNA.
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A client who is 24 weeks gestation arrives at the clinic reporting swollen hands. On examination, the nurse notes the client has had a rapid weight gain over six weeks. Which action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Review the client's previous blood pressures in the chart.
- B. Obtain the client's blood pressure.
- C. Observe and time the client's contractions.
- D. Examine the client for pedal edema.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Swollen hands and rapid weight gain could be signs of preeclampsia, so the next step is to check the client's blood pressure. Elevated blood pressure is a key indicator in assessing for preeclampsia in pregnancy. Reviewing the client's previous blood pressures may provide additional context but obtaining the current blood pressure is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing and timing contractions are not relevant in this scenario as the client is not presenting with signs of active labor. Examining for pedal edema is important in assessing for fluid retention, but obtaining the blood pressure takes precedence in this case due to the potential seriousness of preeclampsia.
A client at 26 weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
- B. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.
- C. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test should be evaluated.
- D. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An elevated AFP level during pregnancy can indicate potential fetal anomalies. Further evaluation is necessary to confirm the findings and assess the need for additional interventions. Scheduling a sonogram is the appropriate next step as it can provide more definitive results and help identify any underlying issues. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the elevated AFP level as a false reading without further investigation can lead to missing important information about the baby's health. Choice C is not the best immediate action, as scheduling a sonogram would provide more detailed information than just repeating the AFP test. Choice D is incorrect as discussing intrauterine surgical correction is premature at this stage and not typically indicated based solely on an elevated AFP level.
Jill bears the genetic code for Von Willebrand disease, but she has never developed the illness herself. Jill would be considered:
- A. a carrier of the recessive gene that causes the disease.
- B. susceptible to the disease after adolescence.
- C. an acceptor of the recessive gene that causes the disease.
- D. susceptible to the disease in late adulthood.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Jill is a carrier of the recessive gene for Von Willebrand disease. Being a carrier means that she has one copy of the gene but does not show symptoms of the disease. Carriers can pass on the gene to their offspring. Choice B is incorrect as being a carrier does not mean she is susceptible to developing the disease after adolescence. Choice C is incorrect as 'acceptor' is not a term used in genetics in this context. Choice D is incorrect as susceptibility to the disease is not related to late adulthood in carriers of a recessive gene.
Which of the following statements is a characteristic of supermales?
- A. They are somewhat taller than average.
- B. Their facial hair growth is minimal when compared to normal males.
- C. They suffer from gynecomastia.
- D. They are typically impotent.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct characteristic of supermales, individuals with an XYY chromosome pattern, is that they are somewhat taller than average. Choice B is incorrect as supermales do not exhibit minimal facial hair growth compared to normal males. Choice C is incorrect as gynecomastia, the development of male breasts, is not a characteristic of supermales. Choice D is also incorrect as impotence is not a typical characteristic associated with supermales.
A newborn is 1 hour old with a respiratory rate of 50/min, a heart rate of 130/min, and an axillary temperature of 36.1°C (97°F). Which of the following actions should be taken?
- A. Give the newborn a warm bath.
- B. Apply a cap to the newborn's head.
- C. Reposition the newborn.
- D. Obtain an oxygen saturation level.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Applying a cap to the newborn's head is the correct action in this scenario. Newborns are at risk of heat loss due to their high surface area to volume ratio, and maintaining their body temperature is crucial to prevent hypothermia. Giving a warm bath can further increase heat loss and is not recommended. Repositioning the newborn may not address the primary concern of temperature regulation. While monitoring oxygen saturation is important, addressing thermal regulation takes precedence in this situation.