Nokea
Which of the following pairs of bases is present in the rungs of the ladder-like structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?
- A. Cytosine with guanine.
- B. Rhodamine with biotin.
- C. Diaminopurine with ribozyme.
- D. Serine with tyrosine.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cytosine with guanine. In the DNA double helix, cytosine always pairs with guanine forming a base pair, and adenine pairs with thymine. These complementary base pairs form the rungs of the ladder-like structure of DNA. Choice B, Rhodamine with biotin, is incorrect as they are not base pairs found in DNA. Choice D, Serine with tyrosine, is incorrect as they are amino acids, not DNA bases. Choice C, Diaminopurine with ribozyme, is also incorrect as ribozyme is an enzyme, not a base, and diaminopurine is not one of the standard bases found in DNA.
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Is a low sperm count or lack of sperm the most common infertility problem in men?
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Rarely
- D. Never
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A low sperm count or lack of sperm is indeed one of the most common causes of infertility in men. Factors such as hormonal imbalances, genetic issues, reproductive anatomy problems, and lifestyle factors can also contribute to male infertility. Choice B is incorrect because a low sperm count is a prevalent issue among men facing infertility, making it a common problem. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the prevalence of low sperm count as a cause of infertility in men.
An individual's phenotype reflects both genetic and environmental influences.
- A. phenotype
- B. chromosome
- C. allele
- D. genotype
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: phenotype. A phenotype is the observable characteristics of an individual, which result from the interaction of their genotype with the environment. This interaction between genetics and the environment determines how genes are expressed and how traits are manifested in an individual. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because chromosomes, alleles, and genotypes are components of an individual's genetic makeup, but they do not directly reflect the observable traits influenced by both genetics and the environment.
After a mother was diagnosed with gonorrhea immediately after delivery, what is an important goal of the nurse when providing care for her baby?
- A. Prevent the development of ophthalmia neonatorum.
- B. Lubricate the eyes.
- C. Prevent the development of infection.
- D. Teach about the risks of breastfeeding with gonorrhea.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent the development of ophthalmia neonatorum. When a mother has gonorrhea, the baby can be infected during delivery, leading to ophthalmia neonatorum, which can cause permanent blindness. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to prevent this condition by treating the baby's eyes with an antibiotic prophylactically after birth. Choice B, lubricating the eyes, is not the primary goal in this situation as preventing infection takes precedence. Choice C, preventing the development of infection, is too broad and does not specifically address the potential complication of ophthalmia neonatorum. Choice D, teaching about the risks of breastfeeding with gonorrhea, is important but not the immediate goal in this scenario where preventing ophthalmia neonatorum and potential blindness is the priority.
Four clients at full term present to the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should a nurse assess first?
- A. Multipara with contractions occurring every three minutes
- B. Multipara scheduled for non-stress test and biophysical profile
- C. Primipara with vaginal show and leaking membranes
- D. Primipara with burning on urination and urinary frequency
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A primipara with vaginal show and leaking membranes requires immediate assessment as she may be in active labor or at risk of infection. The vaginal show and leaking membranes suggest potential rupture of membranes and the start of labor. Assessing her first ensures prompt management and monitoring. The other options, while important, do not indicate immediate or emergent needs. Contractions every three minutes in a multipara can be managed with ongoing monitoring; non-stress tests and biophysical profiles can be scheduled and are not acute needs. Burning on urination and urinary frequency in a primipara may indicate a urinary tract infection, which is important but not as urgent as assessing for active labor or rupture of membranes.
A client at 26 weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
- B. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.
- C. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test should be evaluated.
- D. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An elevated AFP level during pregnancy can indicate potential fetal anomalies. Further evaluation is necessary to confirm the findings and assess the need for additional interventions. Scheduling a sonogram is the appropriate next step as it can provide more definitive results and help identify any underlying issues. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the elevated AFP level as a false reading without further investigation can lead to missing important information about the baby's health. Choice C is not the best immediate action, as scheduling a sonogram would provide more detailed information than just repeating the AFP test. Choice D is incorrect as discussing intrauterine surgical correction is premature at this stage and not typically indicated based solely on an elevated AFP level.