The nurse is caring for a client with decreased cardiac output secondary to heart failure with fluid volume overload. The effects of diminished renal perfusion will have which physiologic response?
- A. Diuresis
- B. Increased fluid retention
- C. Elevated bicarbonate level
- D. Paroxysmal idiopathic narcosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When there is diminished renal perfusion due to decreased cardiac output, the kidneys receive less blood flow. This leads to a decrease in urine output and an increase in fluid retention, as the kidneys are not able to effectively filter and excrete excess fluid. Elevated bicarbonate level and paroxysmal idiopathic narcosis are not typically associated with diminished renal perfusion in heart failure. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Increased fluid retention.'
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The nurse is caring for a client and wants to assess the neurologic function. Which of the following will give the most information?
- A. Level of consciousness
- B. Doll's eye reflex
- C. Babinski reflex
- D. Reaction to painful stimuli
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Level of consciousness.' Assessing the client's level of consciousness provides crucial information about their neurologic function, including subtle changes in verbal ability, orientation, and responsiveness to commands. Doll's eye reflex is a specific eye movement test used in neurologic assessments but may not provide as much comprehensive information as the client's overall consciousness level. The Babinski reflex is a test used to assess specific spinal cord function rather than overall neurologic function. Reaction to painful stimuli provides information about sensory function and pain response but may not offer as much insight into the client's neurologic status as assessing their level of consciousness.
A woman is in the active phase of labor. An external monitor has been applied, and a fetal heart deceleration of uniform shape is observed, beginning just as the contraction is underway and returning to the baseline at the end of the contraction. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate?
- A. Administer O2 if necessary.
- B. Turn the client on her left side.
- C. Notify the physician.
- D. No action is necessary.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'No action is necessary.' In this scenario, the fetal heart deceleration of uniform shape observed is an early deceleration resulting from head compression. Early decelerations are benign and typically do not require any intervention as they mirror the contraction pattern. It is essential to closely observe both the mother and the baby. Administering O2 (Choice A) is not necessary as early decelerations do not indicate fetal distress. Turning the client on her left side (Choice B) is not required for early decelerations. Notifying the physician (Choice C) is not needed for this type of deceleration, as it is a normal response to head compression during labor.
When dressing a severe burn to the right hand, it is important for the nurse to:
- A. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing for debridement
- B. Wrap each digit individually to prevent webbing
- C. Open blisters to allow drainage prior to dressing
- D. Allow the client to do as much of the dressing change as possible
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When dressing a severe burn to the hand, it is crucial to wrap each digit individually to prevent webbing, which can lead to contractures and impaired function. Applying a wet-to-dry dressing for debridement is not recommended for burn wounds as it can cause trauma to the wound bed during removal. Opening blisters can increase the risk of infection and delay healing. Allowing the client to perform the dressing change may not ensure proper care and can lead to complications.
On morning rounds, the nurse finds a somnolent client with a Blood glucose of 89 mg/dL. A sulfonurea and a proton pump inhibitor are scheduled to be administered. What is the nurse's best action?
- A. Give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats
- B. Hold medications and notify the physician
- C. Arouse the client and give some orange juice with sugar packets added
- D. Give the medications as ordered and re-check blood sugar in one hour
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action is to give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Sulfonureas should be held for blood glucose levels below 100 mg/dL until the client has food to prevent hypoglycemia. Giving the proton pump inhibitor is appropriate and does not need to be delayed. Option B is incorrect because holding both medications without taking appropriate action may lead to further complications. Option C is not the best choice as it does not address the need to hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Option D is incorrect because administering the medications without ensuring the client eats may lead to hypoglycemia.
What is most important for the healthcare professional to do prior to initiating peritoneal dialysis?
- A. Aspirate to check placement
- B. Ensure the client voids
- C. Irrigate the catheter to maintain patency
- D. Warm the fluids
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to warm the fluids. Warming the dialysis fluids is crucial before initiating peritoneal dialysis to prevent abdominal discomfort and promote vasodilation, which helps in achieving good exchange in the peritoneum. Aspirating to check placement (Choice A) is not typically necessary before initiating peritoneal dialysis. Ensuring the client voids (Choice B) is not directly related to the procedure of peritoneal dialysis. Irrigating the catheter to maintain patency (Choice C) is usually done as part of routine care but is not specifically required prior to initiating peritoneal dialysis. Therefore, the most important action to take before starting peritoneal dialysis is to warm the fluids.