Nokea
Which of the following processes happen during mitosis?
- A. Strands of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) break apart.
- B. Adenine combines with its appropriate partner, cytosine.
- C. Sperm and ova cells are created.
- D. Twenty-three chromosomes are created.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct process that happens during mitosis is the breaking apart, replication, and division of DNA strands into two new cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell. Choice B is incorrect because it describes base pairing in DNA, not a process specific to mitosis. Choice C is incorrect as the creation of sperm and ova cells is related to meiosis, not mitosis. Choice D is incorrect because chromosomes are not created during mitosis; they are replicated and divided equally between the daughter cells.
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A nurse on an antepartum unit is reviewing the medical records for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8%
- B. A client who has preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL
- C. A client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and a sodium level of 110 mEq/L
- D. A client who has placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
_______ is a genetic disorder in which blood does not clot properly.
- A. Cystic fibrosis
- B. Hemophilia
- C. Lymphoma
- D. Huntington's disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hemophilia is a genetic disorder characterized by a deficiency in blood clotting factors, leading to prolonged bleeding. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system, not blood clotting. Lymphoma is a type of cancer originating in the lymphatic system and is not related to blood clotting abnormalities. Huntington's disease is a neurodegenerative genetic disorder that affects a person's ability to move, think, and behave.
A client at 34 weeks gestation comes to the birthing center complaining of vaginal bleeding that began one hour ago. The nurse's assessment reveals approximately 30ML of bright red vaginal bleeding, fetal heart rate of 130 - 140 beats per minute, no contractions, and no complaints of pain. What is the most likely cause of this client's bleeding?
- A. Abruptio Placenta
- B. Placenta Previa
- C. Normal bloody show indicating induction of labor
- D. A ruptured blood vessel in the vaginal vault
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa, a condition where the placenta covers the cervix, can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. In this scenario, the absence of contractions and pain, along with the presence of significant bright red bleeding, is more indicative of placenta previa rather than abruptio placenta or a ruptured vessel. A normal bloody show typically occurs closer to the onset of labor and is not associated with the amount of bleeding described in the question.
A primigravida arrives at the observation unit of the maternity unit because she thinks she is in labor. The nurse applies the external fetal heart monitor and determines that the fetal heart rate is 140 beats per minute and contractions are occurring irregularly every 10 to 15 minutes. Which assessment finding confirms to the nurse that the client is not in labor at this time?
- A. Membranes are intact.
- B. 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities.
- C. Contractions decrease with walking.
- D. Cervical dilation is 1 centimeter.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Contractions that decrease with walking are typically indicative of false labor, as true labor contractions tend to intensify with activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A) Intact membranes are a normal finding and do not confirm the absence of labor. B) 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities is a sign of fluid retention and not directly related to labor status. D) Cervical dilation of 1 centimeter indicates some cervical changes, but it alone does not confirm active labor.
A perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postpartum period. Assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding. What is the most likely cause of this bleeding?
- A. Uterine atony.
- B. Uterine inversion.
- C. Vaginal hematoma.
- D. Vaginal laceration.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Uterine atony is significant hypotonia of the uterus and is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It results in the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding. Uterine inversion is a rare but serious complication that involves the turning inside out of the uterus, leading to hemorrhage, but it is not the most likely cause of profuse bleeding in this scenario. Vaginal hematoma may cause bleeding but is typically associated with pain as a primary symptom rather than profuse bleeding. Vaginal lacerations can cause bleeding, but in the presence of a firm, contracted uterine fundus, uterine atony is a more likely cause of ongoing profuse bleeding in the postpartum period.