Nokea
Which of the following requires IL-2 and IL-4 in the conversion of unilineage progenitor cell into mature circulating cell?
- A. Neutrophil
- B. Eosinophil
- C. Basophil
- D. B lymphocyte
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: B lymphocyte. IL-2 and IL-4 are crucial for the differentiation of B lymphocytes from unilineage progenitor cells. IL-2 supports proliferation and survival of B cells, while IL-4 promotes their differentiation into mature circulating cells. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils develop independently of IL-2 and IL-4. Neutrophils mainly require granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF), eosinophils require IL-5, and basophils are influenced by IL-3 and IL-5. Therefore, the correct answer is D as B lymphocytes specifically rely on IL-2 and IL-4 for their maturation.
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Dohle bodies are patches of dilated endoplasmic reticulum that appear as cerulean blue cytoplasmic puddles. These findings are mostly seen in
- A. Chronic myeloid leukemia
- B. Leukemoid reaction
- C. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
- D. Infectious mononucleosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Infectious mononucleosis. Dohle bodies are seen in infectious mononucleosis due to the accumulation of rough endoplasmic reticulum in neutrophils. This is a result of the viral infection causing stress on the neutrophils. In chronic myeloid leukemia (A), leukemoid reaction (B), and Chediak-Higashi syndrome (C), Dohle bodies are not typically observed. In chronic myeloid leukemia, the characteristic finding is the Philadelphia chromosome. Leukemoid reaction is a reactive increase in white blood cells due to infection or inflammation. Chediak-Higashi syndrome is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by defective phagolysosome formation.
A 40 year old patient is presented with unilateral palpebral edema and ipsilateral lymphadenopathy. He later develops megaesophagus and megacolon as complications. Which of the following vector is responsible for this parasitic infection?
- A. Glossina morsitans
- B. Ixodes scapularis
- C. Rhodnius prolixus
- D. Simulium damnosum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rhodnius prolixus. This parasite is responsible for causing Chagas disease. The initial symptoms of unilateral palpebral edema and ipsilateral lymphadenopathy are characteristic of the acute phase of Chagas disease. The development of megaesophagus and megacolon are complications seen in the chronic phase. Rhodnius prolixus is a vector for Trypanosoma cruzi, the parasite that causes Chagas disease. Glossina morsitans is the vector for African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness), Ixodes scapularis is the vector for Lyme disease, and Simulium damnosum is the vector for onchocerciasis (river blindness), making them incorrect choices for this particular parasitic infection.
A hospitalized client has a platelet count of 58,000/mm³. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Encourage high-protein foods.
- B. Institute neutropenic precautions.
- C. Limit visitors to healthy adults.
- D. Place the client on safety precautions.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Place the client on safety precautions. A platelet count of 58,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, increasing the risk of bleeding. Placing the client on safety precautions will minimize the risk of injury and bleeding. Encouraging high-protein foods (choice A) is not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia. Neutropenic precautions (choice B) are for clients with low neutrophil counts, not low platelet counts. Limiting visitors to healthy adults (choice C) is important for infection control, not addressing the risk of bleeding.
A 9-month-old boy has been referred to you for the evaluation of an enlarged abdomen. Imaging studies show a large liver mass (PRETEXT III). Alfa-fetoprotein is 98 ng/mL, and a CT scan of the lungs show bilateral lung metastases. A needle biopsy is performed, and you are planning to review the specimen with the pathologist. Which of the following diagnoses are you suspecting?
- A. Pure fetal histology hepatoblastoma
- B. Embryonal sarcoma of the liver
- C. Fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma
- D. Small cell undifferentiated hepatoblastoma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Small cell undifferentiated hepatoblastoma. In hepatoblastoma, the presence of lung metastases indicates a high-risk tumor. The small cell undifferentiated subtype is more aggressive with a poorer prognosis compared to other subtypes. The AFP level is lower than typically seen in hepatoblastoma, but still within the range for this diagnosis. Pure fetal histology hepatoblastoma (choice A) is less common and usually associated with a better prognosis. Embryonal sarcoma of the liver (choice B) is a distinct entity with different histological features. Fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma (choice C) typically occurs in older children and has a different imaging appearance.
In iron deficiency anemia there is characteristically
- A. An atrophic gastritis
- B. A low mean corpuscular volume
- C. A reduced total iron binding capacity
- D. Megaloblastic changes in the bone marrow
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A low mean corpuscular volume. In iron deficiency anemia, there is a decreased amount of iron available for hemoglobin synthesis, leading to smaller and paler red blood cells. This results in a low mean corpuscular volume (MCV). Atrophic gastritis (choice A) is associated with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia, not iron deficiency anemia. Choice C (reduced total iron binding capacity) is incorrect because in iron deficiency anemia, there is an increased total iron binding capacity due to the body's attempt to capture more iron. Megaloblastic changes in the bone marrow (choice D) are seen in megaloblastic anemia, not iron deficiency anemia.