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Which of the following screening tests is recommended for cervical cancer prevention in women aged 21 to 65 years?
- A. Human papillomavirus (HPV) testing alone
- B. Cytology (Pap smear) alone
- C. Co-testing with cytology and HPV testing
- D. Endometrial biopsy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The recommended screening test for cervical cancer prevention in women aged 21 to 65 years is cytology, also known as a Pap smear. The Pap smear is a test that looks for changes in the cells of the cervix that could indicate the presence of cervical cancer or pre-cancerous conditions. This test is recommended every 3 years for women aged 21-29 years, and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65 years, depending on the screening method used. HPV testing alone or co-testing with both cytology and HPV testing may be used in certain situations, but for most women in this age group, cytology (Pap smear) alone is the recommended screening test.
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In the performance of her role and functions a school nurse, which guiding principle should be consider very IMPORTANT?
- A. Health is an integral part of the education process.
- B. The nurse is in full authority over the children
- C. The local health authority supervises the school health
- D. School nursing is more focused on socialization
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The guiding principle that health is an integral part of the education process is of utmost importance for a school nurse in performing their role and functions. This principle emphasizes the interconnectedness of health and academic success, highlighting that healthy students are better able to learn and succeed in school. As a school nurse, understanding and prioritizing this principle means focusing on promoting health and wellness, providing healthcare services, and implementing health education programs to support the overall well-being and academic achievement of students. By recognizing the significance of this principle, school nurses can effectively contribute to creating a healthy and supportive school environment that fosters student growth and development.
Which of the following actions is recommended for controlling severe external bleeding from an extremity?
- A. Applying a tourniquet proximal to the injury site.
- B. Elevating the extremity above the level of the heart.
- C. Applying direct pressure with a sterile dressing.
- D. Removing any impaled objects.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When controlling severe external bleeding from an extremity, the recommended action is to apply direct pressure with a sterile dressing. Direct pressure helps to stop the bleeding by promoting clot formation and reducing blood flow from the wound. This method is effective in most cases and should be the first response to control bleeding. Elevating the extremity above the level of the heart can be helpful in some cases, but direct pressure is the initial recommended action. Applying a tourniquet proximal to the injury site should only be done as a last resort when other methods are not successful, as it can lead to complications such as tissue damage. Removing any impaled objects can actually worsen the bleeding and should be avoided unless necessary for immediate life-saving measures.
Amitriptyline, an antidepressant is the drug of choice in treating Bulimia. What is a COMMON side effect of this drug?
- A. Anticholinergic effects
- B. Cholinergic effects
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Diarrhea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amitriptyline, being a tricyclic antidepressant, commonly causes anticholinergic side effects. These effects include dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, urinary retention, and confusion. Anticholinergic effects are due to the drug's inhibition of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, which can lead to the symptoms mentioned above. These side effects can be bothersome for patients taking amitriptyline, but they are generally manageable and often improve over time as the body adjusts to the medication. In the case of bulimia treatment, the benefits of using amitriptyline to address the underlying psychological issues often outweigh the side effects.
A patient with interstitial lung disease (ILD) develops progressive dyspnea, non-productive cough, and fine inspiratory crackles on auscultation. High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) of the chest reveals diffuse reticular opacities and traction bronchiectasis. Which of the following ILD subtypes is most likely to present with these clinical and radiographic features?
- A. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF)
- B. Sarcoidosis
- C. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis (HP)
- D. Connective tissue disease-associated ILD
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of a patient with progressive dyspnea, non-productive cough, fine inspiratory crackles, and HRCT findings of diffuse reticular opacities and traction bronchiectasis is highly suggestive of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF). IPF is a specific subtype of ILD characterized by progressive scarring of the lung tissue, leading to the symptoms mentioned above. The presence of reticular opacities and traction bronchiectasis on HRCT is a typical finding in IPF.
A patient presents with sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to the back, hypotension, and a widened mediastinum on chest X-ray. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- A. Stable angina
- B. Unstable angina
- C. Acute myocardial infarction
- D. Aortic dissection
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: #NAME?