Nokea
Which of the following should be considered in the assessment of oppositional behaviours in children?
- A. Peer relationships
- B. Child s developmental stage
- C. Behaviours exhibited at home
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: All factorsâ€â€peer relationships, developmental stage, home behavior, and family historyâ€â€are critical in assessing oppositional behaviors comprehensively.
You may also like to solve these questions
The wife of a patient with schizophrenia is worried about her 17-year-old daughter and asks the nurse what symptoms mark the prodromal stage of schizophrenia. The nurse should respond by listing behaviors such as:
- A. withdrawal, poor concentration, phobic or obsessive behavior, oddities of speech.
- B. auditory hallucinations, ideas of reference, thought insertion, and broadcasting.
- C. stereotyped behavior, echopraxia, echolalia, waxy flexibility, thought-blocking.
- D. looseness of associations, concrete thinking, echolalia, paranoid delusions.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the symptoms listed: withdrawal, poor concentration, phobic or obsessive behavior, and oddities of speech are characteristic of the prodromal stage of schizophrenia. During this phase, individuals may start to exhibit subtle changes in behavior and thinking, which may signal the onset of the disorder.
Choice B includes symptoms of active psychosis, such as auditory hallucinations and delusions, which are not typically seen in the prodromal stage. Choice C describes symptoms of catatonia, which are not specific to the prodromal phase. Choice D includes symptoms of acute psychosis, such as paranoid delusions, which are not typically present during the prodromal stage.
In summary, the correct answer is A because it accurately reflects the early, subtle symptoms that may precede the full onset of schizophrenia, while the other choices describe symptoms that are more indicative of later stages of the disorder.
Explain four (4) the behavioral features of Anorexia Nervosa
- A. Restricting food intake
- B. Excessive exercise
- C. Body image distortion
- D. Fear of weight gain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: These behaviors reflect the core features of anorexia: restriction, overactivity, distorted perception, and weight obsession.
After taking an antidepressant for about a week, a patient reports constipation and blurred vision, with no improvement in mood. The psychiatric-mental health nurse informs the patient,:
- A. It takes approximately two to four weeks for depression to lessen, and side effects usually diminish over time'
- B. Stop the medication immediately and contact your primary care physician'
- C. You should contact your doctor. The doctor may need to change your medication'
- D. You should schedule an appointment with your ophthalmologist'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Antidepressants require 2-4 weeks for therapeutic effect, and early side effects often subside, making this the most reassuring response.
A 72-year-old patient has the medical diagnosis of delirium secondary to anticholinergic medication toxicity. Family members are very anxious and express their concerns about placing the patient in a nursing home. What information should serve as a basis for the nurse's reply?
- A. Delirium is reversible, and the patient will likely recover.
- B. The symptoms are related to depression, which can be treated.
- C. Delirium usually progresses to dementia, which is usually permanent.
- D. Home care should be attempted; a nursing home should be the last resort.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Delirium is an acute, reversible condition caused by underlying factors like medication toxicity.
2. By addressing the anticholinergic medication toxicity, the delirium can be resolved, leading to recovery.
3. The patient's age does not necessarily indicate a progression to dementia.
4. Placing the patient in a nursing home is not the immediate solution; resolving the toxicity should be the priority.
Summary:
Choice A is correct because delirium is reversible with appropriate treatment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the underlying cause of delirium or provide accurate information about its progression or management.
A drug causes muscarinic receptor blockade. The nurse will assess the patient for
- A. Dry mouth.
- B. Gynecomastia.
- C. Pseudoparkinsonism.
- D. Orthostatic hypotension.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry mouth. Muscarinic receptor blockade inhibits the action of acetylcholine, leading to decreased salivary gland secretion and causing dry mouth. Gynecomastia (B) is associated with antiandrogen medications. Pseudoparkinsonism (C) is a side effect of antipsychotic medications that block dopamine receptors. Orthostatic hypotension (D) is a side effect of alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blockade.