A 35-year-old woman receiving metronidazole (Flagyl) 250 mg PO tid for 7 days.
Which of the following statements, if made by the woman, would indicate that teaching has been effective?
- A. I should take this medication between meals to increase absorption.'
- B. I shouldn't drink alcohol while I am taking this medication.'
- C. If I experience a metallic taste in my mouth while taking this mediation, I should notify the physician.'
- D. I should avoid strong sunlight while I am taking this medication.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strategy: 'Teaching has been effective' indicates a correct statement. (1) given with meals to decrease GI upset (2) correct-causes Antabuse-like reaction of nausea and vomiting, headache, cramps, flushing (3) frequently seen, not a problem (4) sensitivity to sun not seen with this medication
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When assessing a client who has just undergone a cardioversion, the practical nurse (LPN) finds the respirations are 12/minute. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Try to vigorously stimulate normal breathing
- B. Ask the RN to assess the vital signs
- C. Measure the pulse oximetry
- D. Continue to monitor respirations
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Continue to monitor respirations. A rate of 12/minute is acceptable post-cardioversion, requiring no immediate intervention.
A 69-year-old woman has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several weeks. If the TPN were abruptly discontinued, the nurse would expect the patient to exhibit
- A. tinnitus, vertigo, blurred vision.
- B. fever, malaise, anorexia.
- C. diaphoresis, confusion, tachycardia.
- D. hyperpnea, flushed face, diarrhea.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: insulin levels remain high while glucose levels decline; results in hypoglycemia; will also see restlessness, headache, weakness, irritability, apprehension, lack of muscle coordination
The nurse is monitoring a client’s EKG strip and notes coupled premature ventricular contractions greater than 10 per minute.
- A. Which medication should the nurse expect to administer for a client with coupled PVCs greater than 10 per minute?
- B. Atropine sulfate (Atropine) IV.
- C. Isoproterenol (Isuprel) IV.
- D. Verapamil (Calan) IV.
- E. Lidocaine hydrochloride (Xylocaine) IV.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lidocaine is the drug of choice for frequent or coupled PVCs, as it suppresses ventricular arrhythmias that could lead to ventricular tachycardia. Atropine treats bradycardia, isoproterenol is used for heart block, and verapamil is a calcium-channel blocker for supraventricular arrhythmias.
At a health-screening clinic, an adult male client's total plasma cholesterol level is 200 mg/dL. The nurse should
- A. advise the client to decrease intake of fatty foods.
- B. schedule the client for a follow-up clinic visit in one month.
- C. inform the client that the cholesterol level is within normal limits.
- D. report the finding to the physician immediately.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A cholesterol level of 200 mg/dL is borderline high; reducing fatty foods is appropriate. Options B, C, and D are less immediate or incorrect.
The LPN/LVN is to perform a sterile procedure. Which action will maintain a sterile field?
- A. Keeping the sterile field within the line of vision
- B. Opening sterile packages with sterile gloves
- C. Talking to others over the sterile field
- D. Handing the physician medicine over the sterile field
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Keeping the sterile field in view ensures no contamination occurs, maintaining sterility during the procedure.
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