Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?
- A. The cause and mode of transmission are well understood.
- B. There is no known cure for the disease.
- C. When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured.
- D. Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.
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The nurse teaching a client about hepatitis and its transmission should explain that one type of hepatitis does not produce a carrier state after its acute phase. Which type is it?
- A. hepatitis A
- B. hepatitis B
- C. hepatitis C
- D. hepatitis D
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hepatitis A. Hepatitis A does not produce a carrier state after its acute phase. It is transmitted via contaminated water or food through the oral-fecal route and is not blood-borne. Hepatitis B, choice B, can lead to a carrier state where the person remains infectious despite being asymptomatic. Hepatitis C, choice C, can also result in a chronic carrier state. Hepatitis D, choice D, is an incomplete virus that requires hepatitis B to replicate; it does not lead to a carrier state on its own.
A client who has undergone a total hip replacement is told that she will need to go to an extended care rehabilitation facility for therapy before going home. Which member of the healthcare team should the nurse ask to plan the discharge and transition from the hospital to the rehabilitation facility?
- A. Physical therapist
- B. Occupational therapist
- C. Clergy
- D. Social worker
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate member of the healthcare team to plan the discharge and transition from the hospital to the rehabilitation facility is the social worker. Social workers are trained to provide counseling services, emotional support, arrange placements in care facilities, and locate financial resources for clients. While clergy provide spiritual support and guidance, physical therapists assist in physical treatments, and occupational therapists help with activities of daily living, the social worker is best suited to address the client's needs related to discharge planning and transition. Therefore, the correct answer is the social worker.
The nurse is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client. Which of the following nursing actions should be taken first?
- A. Performing a physical assessment prior to administration
- B. Obtaining the most recent lab values regarding renal function
- C. Reviewing peaks and troughs for the past few days
- D. Ensuring the client is not allergic to the medication
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Before administering any medication, including IV Vancomycin, it is crucial to ensure that the client is not allergic to the medication. This is the most critical action to prevent any potential allergic reactions. While performing a physical assessment is important, it may not be as time-sensitive as checking for allergies. Obtaining lab values related to renal function is also significant with Vancomycin due to its potential nephrotoxicity, but ensuring the client's safety by checking for allergies takes precedence. Reviewing peaks and troughs is important for monitoring drug levels, but it is a secondary step compared to checking for allergies prior to administration.
The nurse and a colleague are on the elevator after their shift, and they hear a group of healthcare providers discussing a recent client scenario. Which client right might be breached?
- A. right to refuse treatment
- B. right to continuity of care
- C. right to confidentiality
- D. right to reasonable responses to requests
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The right to confidentiality of client information might be breached when client care situations are discussed in public areas or without regard to maintaining the information as private and confidential. In this scenario, the conversation on the elevator could lead to a breach of the client's right to confidentiality. The other options, such as the right to refuse treatment, right to continuity of care, and right to reasonable responses to requests, are not being breached in this instance, making them incorrect choices.
A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for all of the following except:
- A. identifying risks.
- B. controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims.
- C. ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions.
- D. analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for identifying risks, controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims, and analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs. It is not responsible for ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions. Monitoring staff adherence to their job descriptions falls under the purview of departmental managers or supervisors. The primary focus of a risk management program is to assess, mitigate, and manage risks related to patient safety, quality of care, and financial implications, rather than overseeing staff job descriptions.