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A nurse in a PACU is transferring care of a client to a nurse on the medical-surgical unit.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the hand-off report?
- A. The estimated blood loss was 250 mL.
- B. The client has a good appetite and ate well before surgery.
- C. The client's family visited during the recovery period.
- D. The client's call light is within reach.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The estimated blood loss was 250 mL. This statement is important for the receiving nurse to know as it provides crucial information about the client's condition post-surgery. It helps in monitoring for signs of hemorrhage or other complications. The other choices (B, C, D) are not essential for the hand-off report as they do not directly impact the client's immediate care or safety. Choice B is subjective and not a clinical observation. Choice C is about the client's family, which is not pertinent to the client's medical status. Choice D is a general safety measure and not specific to the client's condition.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has placenta previa.
Which finding should the nurse expect?
- A. Spotting
- B. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
- C. Soft, relaxed, and non-tender uterus
- D. Fundal height greater than expected for gestational age
- E. Fetal heart rate within normal limits unless significant blood loss occurs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. This finding is indicative of placenta previa, a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix. The bright red color indicates fresh bleeding. Spotting (choice A) is more commonly associated with implantation bleeding in early pregnancy. A soft, relaxed, and non-tender uterus (choice C) is not specific to any particular condition. A fundal height greater than expected for gestational age (choice D) could indicate fetal macrosomia or polyhydramnios, but it is not related to the scenario described. While fetal heart rate within normal limits (choice E) is important, it is not the most relevant finding in this case.
A nurse is caring for a client
History and Physical
Day 1,0900:
A 52-year-old client brought to emergency department by adult child. Client is alert and oriented
to person and time but does not know where they are. No history of substance use according to
client's adult child. Client exhibits constant movements and poor concentration. Hair and
clothing are unclean, appears to be listening to unseen others. Skin turgor poor.
Nurses Notes
Day 1. 0915
The client's adult child reports the client has not slept for 2 days and has become obsessed with
cleaning the house and hosting parties. At times the client is overly joyous and has a very
elevated sense of self-confidence. The adult child states that the client has also demonstrated
very impulsive spending habits and expresses concern about the client giving away large sums
of money to others
The client's speech is very pressured, disorganized, and loud. Client unable to recall the last time
they ate
Vital Signs
Day 1, 0905:
Temperature 37.1° C (98,8° F)
Heart rate 120/min
Respiratory rate 19/min
BP 138/88 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
Select the 4 findings that require immediate follow up
- A. Hallucinations
- B. Heart rate
- C. Sleep patterns
- D. Skin turgor
- E. Hygiene
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D
Rationale: The correct answer is A, B, C, and D. Hallucinations (A) may indicate a serious health issue needing immediate attention. Abnormal heart rate (B) could signify a cardiac problem. Disrupted sleep patterns (C) may indicate underlying health conditions. Reduced skin turgor (D) can signal dehydration or malnutrition. Choices E, F, and G are not typically indicative of immediate follow-up needs in this context.
The nurse continues to care for the client.
History and Physical
Day 1, 0900:
A 52-year-old client brought to emergency department by adult child. Client is alert and oriented
to person and time but does not know where they are. No history of substance use according to
client's adult child. Client exhibits constant movements and poor concentration. Hair and
clothing are unclean. Appears to be listening to unseen others. Skin turgor poor.
Fill in the blanks with one condition and one client finding.The client is most likely experiencing---------- as evidenced by the client's--------
- A. Mania
- B. Delirium
- C. Catatonia
- D. Magical thinking
- E. Euphoric mood
- F. Hypervigilance
- G. Panic disorder
Correct Answer: A,E
Rationale: The correct answer is A, E. Mania is characterized by elevated mood, increased energy levels, and impulsivity. The client is most likely experiencing mania as evidenced by euphoric mood. Euphoric mood is a key symptom of mania, reflecting a heightened sense of well-being and happiness. Therefore, the combination of mania and euphoric mood is indicative of a manic episode. Choices B, C, D, F, and G are incorrect as they do not align with the symptoms and presentation of mania. Delirium is characterized by confusion and disorientation, not euphoric mood. Catatonia involves motor disturbances, not euphoric mood. Magical thinking refers to unrealistic beliefs, not necessarily elevated mood. Hypervigilance is associated with anxiety disorders, not mania. Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks, not euphoric mood.
A nurse in an outpatient clinic is caring for a client.
Assessment
0840:
Client is calm and cooperative. Skin warm and dry. No rash noted. Lung sounds clear. Abdomen
soft to palpation with fundal height at 20 cm. Fetal heart rate 150/min. Bowel sounds active in all
four quadrants. No edema to lower extremities. Client denies visual changes or severe headaches.
Weight gain of 1.8 kg (4 lb) since last visit. Small amount of mucoid discharge noted on perineal
pad
Laboratory Results
0900:
Urine dipstick:
pH 6.0 mg/d (4.6 to 8 mg/dL)
Specific Gravity 1.022 (1.010 to 1.025)
Leukocyte esterase negative (Negative)
Nitrite negative (Negative)
Protein trace negative (Negative)
Glucose negative (Negative)
Ketones none (None)
Bilirubin none (None)
Blood none (None)
Nurses' Notes
0830:
Client reports to clinic for monthly prenatal visit. Client is at 20 weeks of gestation. Since last
visit, client reports concerns about the occurrence of intermittent mild backaches, increased
heartburn, generalized itching, and vaginal discharge.
Vital Signs
0830:
BP 124/68 mm Hg
Heart rate 80/min
Temperature 37° C (98.6° F)
Respiratory rate 16/min
Weight 67.1 kg (148 lb)
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the client's teaching?
- A. Take hot showers to help relieve itching
- B. Wear flat or low-heeled shoes
- C. You can douche twice weekly
- D. Wear loose-fitting clothing
- E. Try using an abdominal support belt
- F. You should avoid fried foods
- G. Eat two large meals a day
Correct Answer: B,D,F
Rationale: Wearing flat shoes, wearing loose-fitting clothes, and avoiding fried foods are beneficial practices during pregnancy.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and note the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 min. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?
- A. Maternal fever
- B. Fetal anemia
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia
- D. Chorioamnionitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal anemia. Fetal bradycardia (baseline <110/min) can be caused by inadequate oxygen delivery to the fetus, such as in fetal anemia. Anemia decreases the blood's ability to carry oxygen, leading to fetal distress. Maternal fever (A) can increase the fetal heart rate, not decrease it. Maternal hypoglycemia (C) can cause fetal distress, but typically presents with fetal tachycardia. Chorioamnionitis (D) can cause maternal fever and tachycardia, but is less likely to directly affect the fetal heart rate. Other choices are not provided.