Nokea
Which of the following techniques can help to prevent skin irritation or breakdown around a tracheostomy site?
- A. Manage secretions by providing suction on a regular basis
- B. Cleanse the site daily with a mixture of povidone-iodine and water
- C. Avoid using tube ties to secure the tube
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Excess secretions from the tracheostomy tube can collect near the stomal opening and cause skin breakdown. Management of secretions through regular suctioning will keep the area clean and dry, minimizing skin irritation. Choice B, cleansing the site daily with povidone-iodine and water, is incorrect as it may lead to skin irritation due to the harshness of povidone-iodine. Choice C, avoiding tube ties to secure the tube, is also incorrect as securing the tube is essential for stability. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as managing secretions through suctioning is crucial in preventing skin irritation.
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Which assessment finding would the nurse need to report most quickly to the health care provider regarding a patient with acute pancreatitis?
- A. Nausea and vomiting
- B. Hypotonic bowel sounds
- C. Abdominal tenderness and guarding
- D. Muscle twitching and finger numbness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is muscle twitching and finger numbness. These symptoms indicate hypocalcemia, which can lead to tetany if not promptly addressed with calcium gluconate administration. Nausea and vomiting, hypotonic bowel sounds, and abdominal tenderness and guarding are important findings in acute pancreatitis but do not require the same urgent intervention as hypocalcemia to prevent potential severe complications.
A 24-year-old female contracts hepatitis from contaminated food. During the acute (icteric) phase of the patient's illness, what would serologic testing most likely reveal?
- A. antibody to hepatitis D (anti-HDV).
- B. hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).
- C. anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG).
- D. anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the oral-fecal route. During the acute phase of hepatitis A, serologic testing typically reveals anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM). This antibody appears early in the course of the infection. The presence of anti-HAV IgM indicates an acute infection with hepatitis A. Choices A and B are incorrect as hepatitis D and hepatitis B antigens are not typically associated with acute hepatitis A. Choice C, anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG), would indicate a past infection and lifelong immunity, which is not expected during the acute phase of the illness.
A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer both drugs.
- B. Administer the spironolactone.
- C. Withhold the spironolactone and administer the furosemide.
- D. Withhold both drugs until discussed with the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low (hypokalemia), which can be concerning in a patient with cirrhosis who is already at risk for electrolyte imbalances. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can help increase the patient's potassium level and correct the hypokalemia. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to administer the spironolactone. Withholding the spironolactone could further lower the potassium level. Furosemide, on the other hand, is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss and worsen hypokalemia; hence, it should be withheld until the nurse discusses the situation with the healthcare provider. While the healthcare provider should be informed about the low potassium value, immediate administration of spironolactone is necessary to address the hypokalemia in this patient population.
A man is receiving heparin subcutaneously. The patient has dementia and lives at home with a part-time caretaker. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of heparin?
- A. Back Pain
- B. Fever and Chills
- C. Risk for Bleeding
- D. Dizziness
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for Bleeding.' A patient with dementia may have impaired judgment and may be prone to falls or injuries, increasing the risk of bleeding while on heparin therapy. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial in this situation. Choice A, 'Back Pain,' is not a common side effect of heparin. Choice B, 'Fever and Chills,' is not a typical side effect of heparin but may indicate other underlying conditions. Choice D, 'Dizziness,' is not a common side effect of heparin and is not the primary concern in this scenario.
Which of the following types of dressing changes works as a form of wound debridement?
- A. Dry dressing
- B. Transparent dressing
- C. Composite dressing
- D. Wet to dry dressing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Wet to dry dressing.' Wet to dry dressing is a method of wound debridement that involves applying sterile soaked gauze to the wound, allowing it to dry and stick to the wound. When the dressing is removed, it pulls away drainage and debris, aiding in wound debridement. Choice A, 'Dry dressing,' does not actively assist in debridement as it does not collect or remove debris from the wound. Choice B, 'Transparent dressing,' is primarily used for maintaining a moist environment and wound observation, not for debridement. Choice C, 'Composite dressing,' combines multiple layers for different wound care purposes but is not specifically designed for debridement like wet to dry dressing.