Nokea
Which of the following terms is another name for Billroth I?
- A. Gastroduodenostomy
- B. Gastrojejunostomy
- C. Gastroileostomy
- D. Gastrostomy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Gastroduodenostomy. Billroth I procedure involves the removal of a part of the stomach (usually the distal portion) and anastomosis of the remaining stomach to the duodenum. This procedure is known as Gastroduodenostomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to different surgical procedures involving connections with the jejunum, ileum, and creating an opening in the stomach, respectively, not the specific procedure described as Billroth I.
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Which of the following is not a manifestation of breast cancer?
- A. Peau d'orange
- B. Painless breast mass
- C. Alopecia
- D. Breast enlargement
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Alopecia (hair loss) is not a direct manifestation of breast cancer but rather a common side effect of chemotherapy used in breast cancer treatment. Peau d'orange refers to the dimpling or pitting of the skin resembling an orange peel, which can be a sign of breast cancer due to blockage of lymphatic vessels. A painless breast mass and breast enlargement can both be manifestations of breast cancer, with a painless mass being a common symptom and breast enlargement sometimes occurring due to tumor growth.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of acute leukemia. What assessment most directly addresses the most common cause of death among patients with leukemia?
- A. Monitoring for infection
- B. Monitoring nutritional status
- C. Monitoring electrolyte levels
- D. Monitoring liver function
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring for infection. In patients with acute leukemia, the most common cause of death is usually infection or bleeding. By closely monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever, altered mental status, or elevated white blood cell count, healthcare providers can intervene promptly. Monitoring nutritional status (choice B) is important but does not directly address the most common cause of death among leukemia patients. Monitoring electrolyte levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are also important assessments in cancer patients; however, they are not the most direct assessment to address the leading cause of death in patients with leukemia.
A client is diagnosed as having a positive reaction to the Mantoux test. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Isolate the client in a private room.
- B. Administer isoniazid (INH) as prescribed.
- C. Schedule the client for a chest x-ray.
- D. Begin a 9-month course of medication therapy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to schedule the client for a chest x-ray. A positive Mantoux test indicates exposure to TB, but it does not confirm active disease. A chest x-ray is necessary to assess the presence of active TB disease. Isolating the client in a private room (Choice A) is not necessary based solely on a positive Mantoux test result. Administering isoniazid (INH) (Choice B) or beginning a 9-month course of medication therapy (Choice D) is premature without confirming active TB through a chest x-ray.
The nurse is teaching a client about the risk factors associated with colorectal cancer. The nurse determines that further teaching is necessary related to colorectal cancer if the client identifies which item as an associated risk factor?
- A. Age younger than 50 years
- B. History of colorectal polyps
- C. Family history of colorectal cancer
- D. Chronic inflammatory bowel disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Age younger than 50 years. Colorectal cancer is more commonly diagnosed in individuals over the age of 50, so being younger than 50 is not typically considered a significant risk factor. Choice B, history of colorectal polyps, is a known risk factor as polyps can develop into cancer over time. Choice C, family history of colorectal cancer, is a well-established risk factor due to genetic predisposition. Choice D, chronic inflammatory bowel disease, such as Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis, increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer. Therefore, the incorrect choice is A as age younger than 50 years is not a common risk factor for colorectal cancer.
A client with neutropenia is admitted to the hospital. What precaution is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Strict hand hygiene.
- B. Limit visitor contact with the client.
- C. Administer prophylactic antibiotics as ordered.
- D. Administer blood products as ordered.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Strict hand hygiene. Neutropenic clients have a low level of neutrophils, which are important in fighting infections. Therefore, maintaining strict hand hygiene is crucial in preventing the introduction of pathogens that could lead to infections. Limiting visitor contact (choice B) is important but not as critical as preventing the introduction of pathogens through proper hand hygiene. Administering prophylactic antibiotics (choice C) and blood products (choice D) are treatment measures and do not address the preventive aspect that hand hygiene provides.