Nokea
Which of the following tests is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease?
- A. Cervical excitation test
- B. Chadwick sign
- C. Jacquiners sign
- D. Palmers sign
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cervical excitation test. The cervical excitation test is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease. This test involves pain or tenderness upon movement of the cervix, indicating inflammation of the pelvic organs. Chadwick sign (choice B) refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia due to increased vascularity and is not a test for PID. Jacquiners sign (choice C) and Palmers sign (choice D) are not recognized clinical signs or tests for PID, making them incorrect choices.
You may also like to solve these questions
Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2) does not cause cold sores of the lips:
- A. True.
- B. False.
- C. Depends on the person.
- D. Not enough information.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2) typically causes genital herpes, not cold sores on the lips. Cold sores on the lips are commonly caused by herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1). Therefore, the statement that HSV-2 causes cold sores of the lips is incorrect. Choice B, 'False,' is the correct answer. Choice A is incorrect because HSV-2 does not cause cold sores on the lips. Choice C, 'Depends on the person,' is incorrect as the cause of cold sores is predominantly linked to HSV-1. Choice D, 'Not enough information,' is also incorrect as this information is well-established in medical knowledge.
Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) is best for:
- A. Clients who do not wish to have any more children
- B. Clients with a baby less than 6 months postpartum
- C. Clients who want to wait before having a first or another child
- D. Clients with several sexual partners
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clients with a baby less than 6 months postpartum. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) is a highly effective temporary family planning method that is recommended for women who have recently given birth and are breastfeeding. LAM works best when the baby is less than 6 months old, the mother is exclusively breastfeeding, and her menstrual periods have not resumed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because LAM is specifically designed for postpartum women with infants less than 6 months old, focusing on the lactational infertility that occurs during exclusive breastfeeding.
At 16 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes include:
- A. Montgomery's tubercles are prominent.
- B. Darkening of the nipple.
- C. Prickling, tingling sensation.
- D. Colostrum can be expressed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: At 16 weeks of pregnancy, the sensation of prickling and tingling in the breasts is common due to hormonal changes. Montgomery's tubercles becoming prominent is more characteristic of early pregnancy, typically around the first trimester. Darkening of the nipple, known as areola darkening, can occur but is more commonly observed later in pregnancy. The expression of colostrum, the first milk produced by the mammary glands, usually happens closer to the end of pregnancy or after childbirth, not typically at 16 weeks.
What causes the changes in appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty?
- A. Prolactin
- B. Adrenaline
- C. Estrogen
- D. Testosterone
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During puberty, boys experience physical changes such as growth of facial and body hair, deepening of the voice, and muscle development. These changes are primarily driven by the hormone testosterone. Testosterone is responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. Therefore, the correct answer is testosterone. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because prolactin, adrenaline, and estrogen do not play a significant role in the development of male secondary sexual characteristics during puberty.
Through which arteries does the blood supply to the external genitalia primarily occur?
- A. Femoral arteries
- B. Inguinal arteries
- C. Pudendal arteries
- D. Internal iliac arteries
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pudendal arteries. The pudendal arteries are responsible for supplying blood to the external genitalia. These arteries specifically provide blood flow to the perineum, including the external genitalia. Choice A, Femoral arteries, are not primarily responsible for supplying blood to the external genitalia. Choice B, Inguinal arteries, do not supply blood directly to the external genitalia. Choice D, Internal iliac arteries, are not the main suppliers of blood to the external genitalia.