Nokea
Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?
- A. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
- B. First-generation antipsychotic drugs
- C. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs
- D. Dopamine system stabilizers
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: First-generation antipsychotic drugs. These medications primarily block dopamine receptors in the brain, leading to extrapyramidal effects such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. These side effects are less common with atypical antipsychotic drugs (choice A) due to their different receptor profiles. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs (choice C) and dopamine system stabilizers (choice D) are newer classes of medications with reduced extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation drugs. Therefore, the most likely culprit for producing extrapyramidal effects among the options provided is the first-generation antipsychotic drugs.
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Which example best describes a nurse who exhibits moral courage?
- A. A nurse feels angry when a parent refuses important treatment for his child.
- B. A nurse considers seeking help for depression when she feels she cannot meet the needs of her clients in the oncology unit.
- C. A nurse contacts a physician for further orders when he fails to order comfort measures for a client with a terminal illness.
- D. A nurse is frustrated when the laboratory is slow in responding to an order for a stat blood glucose.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it demonstrates moral courage by advocating for the client's well-being in the face of potential conflict with the physician. By taking action to ensure the comfort of a terminally ill client, the nurse upholds ethical principles. Choice A reflects emotional response, not moral courage. Choice B focuses on personal issues, not professional courage. Choice D involves frustration, not moral courage.
A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:
- A. Pulmonary embolectomy
- B. Vena caval interruption
- C. Increasing the coumadin therapy to achieve an INR of 3-4
- D. Thrombolytic therapy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vena caval interruption. In this scenario, the client has a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism, indicating a high risk for further episodes. Vena caval interruption, such as with an inferior vena cava filter, is a preventive measure to reduce the risk of pulmonary embolism recurrence by trapping blood clots before they reach the pulmonary circulation. This intervention is indicated when anticoagulation alone is not sufficient to prevent further emboli. Pulmonary embolectomy (A) is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery and is typically reserved for massive, life-threatening embolisms. Increasing coumadin therapy (C) to achieve a higher INR may increase bleeding risk without necessarily preventing future emboli. Thrombolytic therapy (D) is reserved for acute, large emboli causing hemodynamic instability.
The nurse is assessing an infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Which finding would the nurse anticipate?
- A. Unequal leg length
- B. Limited adduction
- C. Diminished femoral pulses
- D. Symmetrical gluteal folds
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unequal leg length. In developmental dysplasia of the hip, there is abnormal development of the hip joint. This can lead to unequal leg lengths due to hip instability and dislocation. Limited adduction may be present due to hip joint abnormalities. Diminished femoral pulses are not typically associated with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Symmetrical gluteal folds are usually present in healthy infants.
Mr. K is admitted to the orthopedic unit one morning in preparation for a total knee replacement to start in two hours. Which of the following is a priority topic to instruct this client on admission?
- A. The approximate length of the surgery
- B. The type of anticoagulants that will be prescribed
- C. The time of the next meal of solid food
- D. The length of time until the client can return to work
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The approximate length of the surgery. This is the priority topic to instruct the client on admission because knowing the duration of the surgery helps manage the client's expectations and anxiety levels. Understanding the length of the procedure also allows the client to plan for post-operative care and recovery.
Choice B: The type of anticoagulants is important but not as critical on admission as knowing the surgery duration. Choice C: The time of the next meal is important for preoperative fasting but not as crucial as understanding the surgery length. Choice D: The length of time until the client can return to work is important, but it is a secondary concern compared to the immediate surgical procedure.
A nurse is using active listening as a form of therapeutic communication when:
- A. She uses humor to put the client at ease in a situation
- B. She restates what the client said in slightly different words
- C. She uses eye contact and maintains an open stance while the client is talking
- D. She provides personal information to show the client she can relate to him
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because using eye contact and maintaining an open stance while the client is talking demonstrates active listening. Eye contact shows attentiveness and respect, while an open stance conveys empathy and receptiveness. This non-verbal communication encourages the client to feel heard and understood, fostering a therapeutic relationship.
Choice A is incorrect because using humor may not always align with the client's feelings or be perceived as appropriate. Choice B is incorrect as restating what the client said is a form of paraphrasing, not active listening. Choice D is incorrect because providing personal information can shift the focus away from the client's needs and may breach professional boundaries.