Nokea
Which of the following types of cells is the immune system’s shutoff mechanism?
- A. Plasma cells
- B. Suppressor T cells
- C. Helper T cells
- D. B lymphocytes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppressor T cells. Suppressor T cells regulate the immune response by inhibiting the activity of other immune cells to prevent overreaction and maintain immune balance. They play a crucial role in preventing autoimmune diseases and excessive inflammation. Plasma cells (A) produce antibodies, Helper T cells (C) assist in activating other immune cells, and B lymphocytes (D) are involved in antibody production. Suppressor T cells specifically have the function of shutting down immune responses, making them the immune system’s shutoff mechanism.
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During chemotherapy for lymphocytic leukemia, a client develops abdominal pain, fever, and “horse barn” smelling diarrhea. It would be most important for the nurse to advise the physician to order:
- A. Enzyme-linked immunosuppressant assay
- B. Stool for Clostridium difficile test
- C. Flat palate X-ray of the abdomen
- D. Electrolyte panel and hemogram
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stool for Clostridium difficile test. In this scenario, the client is experiencing symptoms suggestive of a possible Clostridium difficile infection, a common complication of chemotherapy. The test is crucial to confirm the presence of C. difficile toxins in the stool, which would guide appropriate treatment with antibiotics such as metronidazole or vancomycin.
A: Enzyme-linked immunosuppressant assay is not relevant in this context as it is used to measure levels of immunosuppressant drugs, not for diagnosing C. difficile infection.
C: Flat palate X-ray of the abdomen is unnecessary and would not provide information about the cause of the symptoms.
D: Electrolyte panel and hemogram are important for monitoring overall health status but do not directly address the specific issue of possible C. difficile infection.
The nurse would expect which of the following would be included in the plan of care/
- A. Have the client drink at least 8 glases of water in the first day
- B. Administer NaHCO3 IV as per physician’s orders
- C. Continue sodium bicarbonate for nausea
- D. Monitor electrolytes for hypokalemia and hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Monitoring electrolytes is essential to assess for potential imbalances due to the use of sodium bicarbonate, which can lead to hypokalemia and hypocalcemia.
Step 2: Hypokalemia and hypocalcemia can result in serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness.
Step 3: By monitoring electrolytes, the nurse can detect imbalances early and intervene promptly to prevent adverse effects.
Summary:
A: Drinking excessive water can lead to electrolyte imbalances and is not directly related to the use of sodium bicarbonate.
B: Administering NaHCO3 IV is not within the nurse's scope of practice and should be done based on physician's orders.
C: Continuing sodium bicarbonate for nausea may not be appropriate without monitoring electrolytes to prevent potential imbalances.
The nurse is teaching the client about risk factors for diabetes mellitus. Which of the following risk factors for diabetes mellitus is nonmodifiable?
- A. Poor control of blood glucose levels
- B. Current of recent foot trauma
- C. Inappropriate foot care
- D. Advanced age
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Define nonmodifiable risk factors - these are factors that cannot be changed or controlled by the individual.
Step 2: Advanced age is a nonmodifiable risk factor as it is determined by genetics and time.
Step 3: Poor control of blood glucose levels, foot trauma, and inappropriate foot care are modifiable risk factors that can be managed through lifestyle changes or medical interventions.
Summary: Choice D is correct because advanced age is a nonmodifiable risk factor for diabetes mellitus, while the other choices involve factors that can be modified through appropriate actions.
Which of the following symptoms most likely indicates that an infusion is infiltrated?
- A. Redness at the site
- B. Pain at the site
- C. Puffiness at the site
- D. Exudate at the site
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Puffiness at the site. This indicates infiltration of the infusion, where the medication or fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue instead of entering the bloodstream. Puffiness is a sign of fluid accumulation due to the infiltration. Redness at the site (A) may indicate infection, pain (B) can be due to various reasons, and exudate (D) may suggest infection or irritation, but they are not specific to infiltration. Infiltration assessment involves checking for swelling, coolness, and blanching around the infusion site.
What is the best way to detect testicular cancer early?
- A. Monthly testicular self-examination
- B. Annual physician examination
- C. Yearly digital rectal examination
- D. Annual ultrasonography
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monthly testicular self-examination. This is the best way to detect testicular cancer early because it allows individuals to become familiar with the normal size, shape, and texture of their testicles, making it easier to notice any changes or abnormalities. Self-examination is cost-effective, convenient, and can be done regularly to monitor for any signs of cancer. Annual physician examination (B) may not be frequent enough for early detection. Yearly digital rectal examination (C) is not relevant for detecting testicular cancer. Annual ultrasonography (D) is not recommended as a routine screening tool for testicular cancer.