Nokea
Which of the following will be present in chronic bacterial infection?
- A. Neutrophilia
- B. Basophilia
- C. Lymphocytosis
- D. Monocytosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monocytosis. In chronic bacterial infections, there is a prolonged immune response leading to an increased production of monocytes to help combat the infection. Neutrophilia (choice A) is more characteristic of acute bacterial infections. Basophilia (choice B) is associated with allergic reactions or certain blood disorders, not typically seen in bacterial infections. Lymphocytosis (choice C) is more common in viral infections or certain immune responses, not specific to chronic bacterial infections.
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Which of the following statements about myeloablative, myeloablative but reduced toxicity, reduced intensity, and non-myeloablative approaches is not correct?
- A. Myeloablative approaches are needed for high-risk malignancies to maximize depth of remission and decrease the likelihood of relapse.
- B. Reduced intensity regimens can be successfully used for most nonmalignant disorders to minimize risk of late effects.
- C. Reduced intensity regimens can markedly decrease the risk of transplant-related mortality in patients who have underlying significant comorbidities but at the cost of more relapse and possibly more graft-versus-host disease.
- D. Non-myeloablative regimens are used for the very highest risk patients to minimize toxicity and for certain diseases such as aplastic anemia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because reduced intensity regimens are used to minimize toxicity and late effects, not for most nonmalignant disorders. Myeloablative approaches are needed for high-risk malignancies to maximize remission depth (A), reduced intensity regimens can increase transplant-related mortality in high-risk patients (C), and non-myeloablative regimens are used for the highest risk patients and certain diseases like aplastic anemia (D).
Non thrombocytopenic purpura is seen in all except:
- A. vasculitis
- B. uraemia
- C. hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
- D. SLE
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: SLE. Non-thrombocytopenic purpura refers to purpura without low platelet count. In SLE, thrombocytopenia is common, leading to purpura. A: Vasculitis can cause non-thrombocytopenic purpura due to vessel inflammation. B: Uraemia can lead to non-thrombocytopenic purpura due to vascular damage. C: Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia presents with telangiectasias and recurrent epistaxis, not purpura.
A laboratory finding of aplastic anaemia
- A. Pancytopaenia
- B. Erythrocytosis
- C. Bone marrow hypercellularity
- D. Reticulocytosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Aplastic anemia is characterized by bone marrow failure, leading to decreased production of all blood cell types.
2. Pancytopenia refers to low levels of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, consistent with aplastic anemia.
3. Erythrocytosis is an increase in red blood cell count, contradictory to the reduced production in aplastic anemia.
4. Bone marrow hypercellularity indicates increased cellularity, opposite to the hypocellularity seen in aplastic anemia.
5. Reticulocytosis is an elevated number of immature red blood cells, which is not typically seen in the context of bone marrow failure in aplastic anemia.
Summary:
A is correct as it aligns with the characteristic pancytopenia in aplastic anemia. B, C, and D are incorrect due to their inconsistency with the pathophysiology of the condition.
You receive a phone call that a 3-year-old patient on long-term warfarin therapy for congenital heart disease has an international normalized ratio (INR) of 5.8. On further history, you learn the patient and several family members have had recent gastrointestinal illnesses, but the patient is recovering. His mother reports he is not experiencing bleeding symptoms. Which of the following interventions would be most reasonable in this clinical scenario?
- A. Hold 1 to 2 doses of warfarin and recheck INR
- B. Administer oral vitamin K therapy
- C. Administer fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
- D. Administer recombinant factor VIIa
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold 1 to 2 doses of warfarin and recheck INR. In this scenario, the patient's elevated INR of 5.8 indicates an increased risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. Since the patient is not experiencing bleeding symptoms and is recovering from gastrointestinal illness, temporarily holding 1 to 2 doses of warfarin is the most reasonable intervention to prevent bleeding complications while allowing the INR to normalize. Rechecking the INR after holding the doses will help assess the patient's response to the intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because administering oral vitamin K therapy, FFP, or recombinant factor VIIa are more aggressive interventions that are not warranted in this case where the patient is asymptomatic and recovering from a transient illness.
Which of the following is a cause of secondary neutropaenia in adults?
- A. Congenital
- B. Anti-hypertensive drugs
- C. Part of general pancytopaenia
- D. Familial
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Secondary neutropenia in adults is often a part of general pancytopenia, which involves a decrease in all three blood cell types. This can be caused by factors such as bone marrow suppression from chemotherapy, radiation therapy, or certain medications. Neutropenia is not typically congenital or familial in adults, and anti-hypertensive drugs are not commonly known to directly cause secondary neutropenia. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it aligns with the common etiology of secondary neutropenia in adults.