Which of the followings is an erectile organ responsible for sexual sensations?
- A. clitoris
- B. Ovary
- C. Cervix
- D. Breast
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A: clitoris. The clitoris is an erectile organ responsible for sexual sensations due to its high concentration of nerve endings. It becomes engorged with blood during arousal, enhancing sensitivity. Ovary (B), Cervix (C), and Breast (D) are not erectile organs and do not directly contribute to sexual sensations. Ovary produces eggs, Cervix is part of the reproductive system, and Breast is a secondary sexual characteristic involved in breastfeeding.
You may also like to solve these questions
The external male genital organ displays:
- A. a corpus spongiosum that surrounds the urethra;
- B. numerous blood vessels;
- C. two corpora cavernosa;
- D. root, attached to the pelvis bones;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. The corpus spongiosum surrounds the urethra in the male external genital organ, aiding in the passage of urine and semen.
2. This structure is crucial for maintaining proper urinary and reproductive functions.
3. The other choices are incorrect because:
- Choice B is vague and does not specifically relate to the male genital organ.
- Choice C refers to the corpora cavernosa, which are erectile tissue in the penis, not the urethra.
- Choice D describes the root of the penis but does not specifically relate to the corpus spongiosum.
Which condition in men is termed as Nongonococcal urethritis?
- A. Chlamydia
- B. Gonorrhea
- C. Herpes
- D. Syphilis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chlamydia. Nongonococcal urethritis is primarily caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, a common sexually transmitted infection. Chlamydia is a major cause of urethritis in men. Gonorrhea (choice B) is another sexually transmitted infection but is not classified as nongonococcal urethritis. Herpes (choice C) and Syphilis (choice D) are caused by different pathogens and present with distinct symptoms, not typically associated with urethritis. Therefore, Chlamydia is the correct choice for Nongonococcal urethritis.
Which of the following nursing interventions are advised for clients with prostate cancer to avoid an infection related to the home-care of a Foley catheter?
- A. Boil the leg bag regularly in a solution of hot water and vinegar for 15 minutes during the cleaning.
- B. Disinfect several inches of the catheter with alcohol or any other antiseptic agent before the insertion.
- C. Clean the leg bag by using soap and water and then rinse it with a 1:7 solution of vinegar and water.
- D. Open the connections between the leg bag and the catheter only once in 15 days to reduce the risks of microbial entry.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Proper cleaning and maintenance of the catheter equipment are crucial to preventing infections.
A 22 year old male presents in your clinic, c/o pain in his testicle and penis. The pain began last night and has steadily become worse. He hurts when he urinates. He has not attempted intercourse since the pain began. He has tried Tylenol and Ibuprofen without improvement. Denies fever or night sweats. He has had 4 previous sexual partners and has had a new partner for the last month. She is using oral contraceptives and they do not use a condom. On exam, you see a young man lying on his side, mildly ill. His temp is 100.2. There are no visible lesions on the penis, or discharge from the meatus. The scrotum appears normal. Palpation of the testes reveals severe tenderness at the superior pole of the normal-sized left testicle. He also has tenderness when you palpate the structures superior to the testicle through the scrotal wall. The right testicle is unremarkable. An examining finger is placed through each inguinal ring without bulges noted with bearing down. Urine analysis shows WBCs and bacteria. What diagnosis of the male genitalia is most likely?
- A. Acute orchitis
- B. Acute epididymitis
- C. Torsion of the spermatic cord
- D. Prostatitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute epididymitis. The patient's symptoms of pain in the testicle and penis, worsened pain with urination, and presence of WBCs and bacteria in the urine analysis are indicative of an infection. The severe tenderness at the superior pole of the left testicle and tenderness on palpation of structures superior to the testicle through the scrotal wall suggest involvement of the epididymis. The risk factors of multiple sexual partners and recent unprotected intercourse also support the diagnosis of epididymitis, which is commonly caused by sexually transmitted infections. Acute orchitis (choice A) typically presents with swelling and tenderness of the entire testicle, not just the epididymis. Torsion of the spermatic cord (choice C) presents with sudden onset severe testicular pain and may have a high-riding testicle. Prostatitis (choice D) presents with symptoms related to the prostate gland, such as pelvic
Women infected with human papilloma virus (HPV) are at risk for which of the following?
- A. Uterine fibroids
- B. Cervical cancer
- C. Ovarian cysts
- D. Hemorrhagic
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: HPV infection is a significant risk factor for developing cervical cancer.