Nokea
Which of the indicators BEST describes an effective outcome of school nursing programs and initiatives.
- A. Zero absenteeism and tardiness of pupils.
- B. Teachers are observers of school health program.
- C. Limited information in school health initiatives
- D. constant visits and phone calls of parents.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because zero absenteeism and tardiness of pupils indicate that the school nursing programs are effectively promoting student health and well-being. This outcome shows that students are healthy, engaged, and present in school, which is a key goal of school nursing initiatives.
Choice B is incorrect as teachers being observers does not directly measure the effectiveness of the nursing programs.
Choice C is incorrect as limited information hinders the success and impact of school health initiatives.
Choice D is incorrect as constant visits and phone calls from parents may not necessarily reflect the success of the nursing programs.
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Nurse Mauve is now on ethical dilemma. This occurs when _______.
- A. a decision had to be made quickly under stress full situation
- B. choices are unclear
- C. there is a conflict between the nurse 's decision and that of his/her superior
- D. there is a conflict of two or more ethical principles
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an ethical dilemma arises when there is a conflict between two or more ethical principles, leading to a difficult decision-making situation for Nurse Mauve. This involves weighing the benefits and consequences of each ethical principle to determine the best course of action. Choice A is incorrect as time pressure does not define an ethical dilemma. Choice B is incorrect because ethical dilemmas involve conflicting choices, not unclear ones. Choice C is incorrect as the conflict in an ethical dilemma is not necessarily with a superior but can be internal or with other stakeholders.
The patient asks Nurse Vera, when could you hear the fetal heart of my baby? Which of the following should be the BEST answer of Nurse Vera?
- A. Nintth month
- B. Third month
- C. Fifth month
- D. First month
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fifth month. Nurse Vera should explain that the fetal heart can typically be heard using a Doppler ultrasound device around the fifth month of pregnancy. This is because the baby's heart is developed enough to produce audible sounds by this time. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in the ninth month, the baby is ready for delivery, in the third month the heart is still developing, and in the first month the heart is just beginning to form and is not yet audible.
A patient presents with fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from a trip to sub-Saharan Africa. Laboratory tests reveal intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
- A. Plasmodium falciparum
- B. Trypanosoma cruzi
- C. Borrelia burgdorferi
- D. Leishmania donovani
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Plasmodium falciparum. Plasmodium falciparum is the most likely causative agent because the patient's symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia, along with the presence of intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear, are characteristic of malaria, particularly caused by P. falciparum in sub-Saharan Africa.
Summary of other choices:
B: Trypanosoma cruzi causes Chagas disease, which presents with symptoms like fever, rash, and swelling at the site of entry, not consistent with the patient's presentation.
C: Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyme disease, which typically presents with a characteristic rash (erythema migrans) and arthritis, not matching the patient's symptoms.
D: Leishmania donovani causes visceral leishmaniasis, which presents with symptoms like weight loss, hepatosplen
A patient with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix) for secondary prevention of thrombotic events. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor closely during clopidogrel therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Platelet count
- D. International normalized ratio (INR)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Platelet count. Platelet count should be monitored closely during clopidogrel therapy because it works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of clot formation. Monitoring platelet count helps assess the drug's effectiveness and prevent potential complications like bleeding or clotting events. Prothrombin time (A), activated partial thromboplastin time (B), and international normalized ratio (D) are tests that primarily assess the coagulation factors and are not directly affected by clopidogrel therapy, making them less relevant for monitoring this specific medication.
A common chronic complication of diabetes due to the thickening of the capillaries and arterioles of the eye is?
- A. Papilledema
- B. Glaucoma
- C. Retinal Detachment
- D. Diabetic retinopathy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diabetic retinopathy. This condition is a common complication of diabetes that occurs due to the thickening of capillaries and arterioles in the eye, leading to damage to the retina. This can result in vision problems and even blindness if left untreated.
A: Papilledema is the swelling of the optic disc due to increased intracranial pressure, not related to diabetes.
B: Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased pressure within the eye, not directly caused by diabetes.
C: Retinal detachment is the separation of the retina from the underlying tissues, which is not primarily caused by diabetes-related capillary changes.