Nokea
Which of these is a one-on-one communication between the nurse and another person?
- A. Small-group communication
- B. Intrapersonal communication
- C. Interpersonal communication
- D. Transpersonal communication
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Interpersonal communication is a one-on-one interaction between a nurse and another person that often occurs face-to-face. It involves direct communication between two individuals. Small-group communication involves interaction among a small number of people, not just one-on-one. Intrapersonal communication is internal communication that occurs within an individual's mind. Transpersonal communication involves interactions within a person's spiritual domain, which is beyond individual one-on-one communication.
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Which mental health disorder is most likely to be treated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?
- A. Clinical depression
- B. Substance abuse disorder
- C. Antisocial personality disorder
- D. Psychosis occurring in schizophrenia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is commonly used to treat severe cases of clinical depression in individuals who have not responded well to psychotropic medications or when immediate intervention is necessary due to the severity of the depression. ECT is not typically a first-line treatment for substance abuse disorders, antisocial personality disorder, or psychosis occurring in schizophrenia. Clients with clinical depression who meet specific criteria and have not benefited from other treatments may be considered for ECT to alleviate symptoms and improve overall functioning.
Your patient has been confused for years. Your patient can be best described as having a chronic ___________ disorder.
- A. physical
- B. psychotic
- C. thinking
- D. palliative
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Patients who experience long-term confusion often have a chronic thinking, or cognitive, disorder. Alzheimer's disease is a prime example of a disorder that results in prolonged confusion and memory loss. Choice A, 'physical', is incorrect as the issue described is related to cognitive functioning, not physical health. Choice B, 'psychotic', refers to a severe mental disorder characterized by a loss of contact with reality, which is not the primary issue presented in the scenario. Choice D, 'palliative', is not relevant as it pertains to specialized medical care for individuals with serious illnesses, focusing on providing relief from symptoms and stress rather than managing chronic confusion.
Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?
- A. Olanzapine
- B. Meperidine
- C. Ziprasidone
- D. Haloperidol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.
Which clinical findings indicate positive signs and symptoms of schizophrenia?
- A. Withdrawal, poverty of speech, inattentiveness
- B. Flat affect, decreased spontaneity, asocial behavior
- C. Hypomania, labile mood swings, episodes of euphoria
- D. Bizarre behavior, auditory hallucinations, loose associations
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is bizarre behavior, auditory hallucinations, and loose associations. These are positive symptoms of schizophrenia, reflecting a distortion or excess of normal function. Withdrawal, poverty of speech, inattentiveness, flat affect, decreased spontaneity, and asocial behavior are negative symptoms linked to schizophrenia, indicating a diminution or absence of normal function. Hypomania, labile mood swings, and episodes of euphoria are more characteristic of bipolar disorder, rather than schizophrenia.
A client who is in a late stage of pancreatic cancer intellectually understands the terminal nature of the illness. Which behaviors indicate the client is emotionally accepting the impending death?
- A. Revising the client's will and planning a visit to a friend
- B. Alternating between crying and talking openly about death
- C. Seeking second, third, and fourth medical opinions
- D. Refusing to follow treatments and stating they won't help anyway
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Revising the will and planning a visit to a friend are indicative of emotional acceptance of impending death as they demonstrate realistic, productive, and constructive ways of using the remaining time. Alternating between crying and talking openly about death may suggest depression rather than acceptance. Seeking multiple medical opinions shows disbelief, denial, or desperation rather than acceptance. Refusing treatments and stating they won't help reflects anger and hopelessness, not acceptance.